Nokea
The nurse is grading a woman's reflexes. Which of the following grades would indicate reflexes that are slightly brisker than normal?
- A. +1.'
- B. +2.'
- C. +3.'
- D. +4.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: +3'. This indicates brisk reflexes. A: +1' indicates a low-normal response, B: +2' indicates a normal response, and D: +4' indicates hyperactive reflexes. +3' is slightly brisker than normal, reflecting an increased response without being hyperactive.
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What is the clinical finding most likely to be exhibited in an infant diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis?
- A. Edema
- B. Immature red blood cells
- C. Enlargement of the heart
- D. Ascites
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immature red blood cells. Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition where maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolysis and the release of immature red blood cells (erythroblasts) into the circulation. This can result in anemia and jaundice in the infant. Edema (choice A) is not a typical clinical finding in erythroblastosis fetalis. Enlargement of the heart (choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like congestive heart failure. Ascites (choice D) is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is not a characteristic finding in erythroblastosis fetalis.
A nurse is teaching a community health class of women and explains that an STI is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women. Which STIs should the nurse identify?
- A. HSV-2
- B. Syphilis
- C. Chlamydia
- D. HPV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chlamydia. Chlamydia is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women due to its ability to cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs. This scarring can result in blocked fallopian tubes, making it difficult for an egg to be fertilized by sperm. HSV-2 (Choice A) is a viral infection that primarily causes genital herpes but is not directly linked to infertility. Syphilis (Choice B) can lead to serious complications but infertility is not a common outcome. HPV (Choice D) is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital warts and cervical cancer, but it does not typically lead to infertility in women.
Which are major risk factors for breast cancer? Select all that apply.
- A. Female gender
- B. Increasing age over 50 years
- C. Personal history of breast cancer (in situ or invasive), family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives (parent, sibling, child)
- D. High-fat diet, Alcohol consumption (two or more drinks/day)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because having a personal history of breast cancer, a family history of breast cancer in first-degree relatives, or both are major risk factors for developing breast cancer. This is due to the presence of genetic mutations that increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Choices A and B are not specific risk factors for breast cancer, although being female and increasing age are associated with higher risk. Choice D, high-fat diet and alcohol consumption, are not considered major risk factors for breast cancer.
A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which medication combination should the nurse expect to be prescribed?
- A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- B. Penicillin and ceftriaxone
- C. Tetracycline and azithromycin
- D. Levofloxacin and azithromycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Azithromycin is often prescribed in combination to treat possible co-infection with chlamydia. Penicillin (B) is not effective against gonorrhea. Tetracycline (C) is not recommended due to resistance issues. Levofloxacin (D) is no longer recommended due to resistance concerns. The combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and possible chlamydia co-infection effectively.
A woman has been diagnosed with galactorrhea. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
- A. Milky white discharge from one or both nipples
- B. Absence of menstrual periods
- C. Temperature intolerance
- D. Less interest in sex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Less interest in sex. Galactorrhea is the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast unassociated with childbirth or nursing. It is commonly caused by elevated levels of prolactin, which can suppress the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone, leading to symptoms like decreased libido and less interest in sex. The other choices, A, B, and C, are incorrect because milky white discharge from nipples (A) is a symptom of galactorrhea, absence of menstrual periods (B) is more indicative of conditions like amenorrhea, and temperature intolerance (C) is not typically associated with galactorrhea.