Nokea
A 40-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with stage 2 breast cancer. Which of the following are common reactions? Select all that apply.
- A. Anxiety regarding changes in family reactions, body image, disability, and pain
- B. Concern about disruptions related to treatment
- C. Fear of death
- D. Decisional conflict related to controversies about treatment options
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anxiety is common due to the impact on family, body image, disability, and pain. Concern about treatment disruptions is valid but not as common as anxiety. Fear of death is a general fear but may not be as prominent as anxiety. Decisional conflict can occur but is more specific to treatment options rather than a common reaction.
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A male client is being seen by a physician at a community clinic regarding a painless ulcer on his penis. The provider will be communicating his diagnosis of syphilis and prescribing treatment. In the primary stage of syphilis, what is the time between infection and development of symptoms?
- A. 7 days
- B. 10 days
- C. 21 days
- D. 35 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 21 days. The primary stage of syphilis typically occurs around 21 days after infection when a painless ulcer, known as a chancre, appears at the site of infection. This is due to the multiplication of the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Choice A (7 days) is too short for the development of symptoms. Choice B (10 days) is also too short. Choice D (35 days) is too long for the primary stage of syphilis.
The nurse is teaching a sex education class to teenage girls. The nurse informs them that which age group should receive a vaccination to prevent HPV infection?
- A. 13-29
- B. 12-26
- C. 9-26
- D. 7-20
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (9-26) because the HPV vaccine is recommended for both males and females between the ages of 9 and 26. Vaccination at a younger age provides the best protection before exposure to the virus. Choices A, B, and D include age ranges outside the recommended vaccination window, making them incorrect options.
A client with mild preeclampsia who has been advised to be on bed rest at home asks why doing so is necessary. Which of the following is the best response for the nurse to give the client?
- A. "Bed rest will help you to conserve energy for your labor."'
- B. "Bed rest will help to relieve your nausea and anorexia."'
- C. "Reclining will increase the amount of oxygen that your baby gets."'
- D. "The position change will prevent the placenta from separating."'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reclining will help improve blood flow to the placenta, increasing oxygen delivery to the baby. This is crucial in preeclampsia to prevent complications such as fetal growth restriction.
A: Incorrect. Bed rest in preeclampsia is not primarily for energy conservation but to reduce blood pressure and prevent further complications.
B: Incorrect. Bed rest does not directly address nausea and anorexia associated with preeclampsia; it focuses on maternal and fetal well-being.
D: Incorrect. Position change does not directly prevent placental separation in preeclampsia; it is more related to maintaining adequate blood flow to the placenta.
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
- A. Carbon dioxide laser surgery
- B. Electrocautery
- C. Surgical excision
- D. Podophyllin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.