Nokea
The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?
- A. Measure the amount of a client's residual urine after voiding
- B. Cleanse the perineal area of a client with urinary incontinence
- C. Insert a straight catheter to obtain a urine specimen for culture
- D. Provide catheter care for a client with a suprapubic catheter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.
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The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?
- A. Moon face, slow wound healing, muscle wasting, sodium and water retention
- B. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor
- C. Bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies and periorbital edema
- D. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.
A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?
- A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
- B. To lower blood pressure.
- C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
- D. To increase appetite.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is on mechanical ventilation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Suction the tracheostomy as needed
- B. Ensure the tracheostomy ties are secure
- C. Provide humidified oxygen
- D. Clean any exudate around the tracheostomy site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with a tracheostomy on mechanical ventilation is to suction the tracheostomy as needed. Suctioning is essential to maintain a clear airway and prevent respiratory distress. While ensuring tracheostomy ties are secure (choice B) is important, it is not as urgent as airway maintenance. Providing humidified oxygen (choice C) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for airway clearance. Cleaning exudate around the tracheostomy site (choice D) is important for hygiene but takes precedence over ensuring airway patency through suctioning.