The nurse is instructing the client with sickle cell disease about the use of an inhaled vasodilator that may reduce sickling. What medication is the nurse instructing the client about?
- A. Nitszyst oxide
- B. Nitric oxide
- C. Betamethasone
- D. Terbutaline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled nitric oxide-not nitrous oxide (laughing gas), a vasodilating agent- is believed to reduce sickling by promoting the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin. It is being used in the form of handheld inhalers to abort or relieve pain experienced during sickle cell crises. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid, and terbutaline is not used as an inhaler.
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The nurse is assigned to care for a client with polycythemia vera. When the nurse encourages the client to drink 3 L of fluid per day, the client states, 'Why do I have to drink so much?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. We don't want you to get dehydrated.
- B. It helps adequately hydrate you and ensures a sufficient urine production.
- C. It will help your heart beat regularly and effectively.
- D. It will help restrict blood circulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should be advised to drink 3 quarts (or liters) per day. Adequate hydration promotes venous return and ensures sufficient urine production. Informing the client that the healthcare team does not want them to get dehydrated does not address the rationale that the client requires. Fluid hydration will not help the heart beat regularly or more effectively and it will not help to restrict blood circulation.
The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia?
- A. I feel hot all of the time.
- B. I have a difficult time falling asleep at night.
- C. I have an increase in my appetite.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Most clients with iron-deficiency anemia have reduced energy, feel cold all the time, and experience fatigue and dyspnea with minor physical exertion. The heart rate usually is rapid even at rest. The CBC and hemoglobin, hematocrit, and serum iron levels are decreased. The client would feel cold and not hot. The client is fatigued and able to sleep often with a decrease in appetite, not an increase.
The nurse is instructing a client about taking a liquid iron preparation for the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia. What should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Do not take medication with orange juice because it will delay absorption of the iron.
- B. Iron may cause indigestion and should be taken with an antacid such as Mylanta.
- C. Dilute the liquid preparation with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw.
- D. Discontinue the use of iron if your stool turns black.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dilute liquid preparations of iron with another liquid such as juice and drink with a straw to avoid staining the teeth. Avoid taking iron simultaneously with an antacid, which interferes with iron absorption. Drink orange juice or take other forms of vitamin C with iron to promote its absorption. Expect iron to color stool dark green or black.
A client who is diagnosed multiple myeloma experiences decreased production of red blood cells (RBCs). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer to increase the production of erythrocytes?
- A. Filgrastim
- B. Pegfilgrastim
- C. Erythropoietin
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The medication erythropoietin can be used to stimulate the production of red blood cells; therefore, this is the prescribed medication that the nurse prepares to administer to the client. Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim promote proliferation of neutrophils, not erythrocytes. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is prescribed for clients who are diagnosed with multiple myeloma to inhibit the inflammatory immune response.
The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been admitted to the unit with anemia. What would the nurse expect the client to possibly exhibit?
- A. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea
- B. Elimination of iron by the body
- C. Decrease in the total body iron stores with age
- D. Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If an older adult is anemic, blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract is suspected. This is because iron-deficiency anemia is unusual in older adults as the body does not eliminate excessive iron, causing total body iron stores to increase with age. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea is not a causative factor for anemia in older adults.
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