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The nurse is managing a donor patient six hours prior to th e scheduled harvesting of the patient’s organs. Which assessment finding requires imme diate action by the nurse?
- A. Morning serum blood glucose of 128 mg/dL
- B. pH 7.30; PaCO 38 mm Hg; HCO 16 mEq/L 2 3
- C. Pulmonary artery temperature of 97.8° F
- D. Central venous pressure of 8 mm Hg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The patient's pH of 7.30 indicates acidosis, PaCO2 of 38 mm Hg is low, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L is also low, suggesting metabolic acidosis. This finding requires immediate action as untreated acidosis can lead to serious complications.
Choice A (morning serum blood glucose of 128 mg/dL) is within normal range and does not require immediate action.
Choice C (pulmonary artery temperature of 97.8°F) is a normal temperature and does not require immediate action.
Choice D (central venous pressure of 8 mm Hg) is within normal range and does not require immediate action.
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As part of the Synergy Model, the nurse has identified a patient characteristic of resiliency. What patient behavior demonstrates resiliency?
- A. Dysfunctional grieving behaviors after receiving bad news
- B. Developing a list of questions for the physician
- C. Denial of any possible negative outcomes for a procedure
- D. Assigning blame to others for undesired outcomes of illness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because developing a list of questions for the physician shows active engagement in their healthcare, seeking information, and taking control of their situation, which are characteristics of resiliency. This behavior indicates the patient's willingness to understand and cope with their health condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they demonstrate maladaptive coping mechanisms such as dysfunctional grieving, denial, and blame assignment, which are not indicative of resiliency. Resiliency involves adaptability, problem-solving, and seeking support, which are better exemplified by choice B.
A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
- A. Prepare to administer rabies immune globulin (BayRab).
- B. Assist the health care provider with suturing the bite wounds.
- C. Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Keep the wounds dry until the health care provider can assess them.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds.
Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.
The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
- A. Lessened antianxiety
- B. Complete analgesia.
- C. High levels of sedation.
- D. No sedation or analgesia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?
- A. Elevated creatinine
- B. Elevated platelet count
- C. Elevated white blood count
- D. Low liver enzymes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.
Which is likely the most common recollection from a patie nt who required endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation?
- A. Difficulty communicating
- B. Inability to get comfortable
- C. Pain
- D. Sleep disruption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Difficulty communicating. When a patient undergoes endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, they are unable to speak normally. This leads to frustration and anxiety due to the inability to communicate effectively with healthcare providers and loved ones. The lack of communication can also impact their emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as the most common recollection because patients might not remember feeling uncomfortable, experiencing pain, or having sleep disruption during sedation and ventilation. Additionally, the inability to communicate is a primary concern for patients in this situation.