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Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increase functional residual capacity
- B. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli
- C. Improve arterial oxygenation
- D. Open collapsed alveoli
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation.
B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones.
C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity.
D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.
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The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess the patient’s hearing.
- B. Assess the patient’s lungs.
- C. Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered.
- D. Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient’s lungs. Rhabdomyolysis can lead to acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release from damaged muscle cells. IV fluids and mannitol are given to prevent kidney damage by promoting myoglobin excretion. Assessing the patient’s lungs is crucial to monitor for potential complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) which can occur as a result of rhabdomyolysis. This assessment helps to ensure early detection and prompt intervention if respiratory issues arise.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Assess the patient’s hearing - This is not directly related to rhabdomyolysis or its treatment.
C: Decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered - Decreasing IV fluids can exacerbate kidney injury in rhabdomyolysis.
D: Give extra doses before giving radiological contrast agents - Mannitol is not routinely given before radiological contrast agents in the context of rhabdomyolysis management.
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
- A. Cardiac index (CI) of 1.2 L/min/m3
- B. Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) of 80 dynes/sec/cm5
- D. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1800 dynes/sec /cm5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.
A patient in the ICU has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Before being discharged, this patient will require detailed instructions on how to manage her diet, how to self-inject insulin, and how to handle future diabetic emergencies. Which nurse competency is most needed in this situation?
- A. Clinical judgment
- B. Advocacy and moral agency
- C. Caring practices
- D. Facilitation of learning
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facilitation of learning. In this scenario, the nurse needs to effectively educate the patient on managing her diet, insulin injections, and handling emergencies. Facilitation of learning involves assessing the patient's learning needs, providing relevant information, demonstrating skills, and evaluating understanding. This competency is crucial for promoting patient education and empowerment in managing their condition.
A: Clinical judgment involves making decisions based on assessment data, which is important but not the primary focus in this situation.
B: Advocacy and moral agency involve standing up for patients' rights and values, which is important but not as directly relevant to the patient's education needs.
C: Caring practices involve showing empathy and compassion, which are essential but not the main competency required for educational purposes in this case.
Which nursing interventions would best support the family of a critically ill patient?
- A. Encouraging family members to stay all night in case t he patient needs them.
- B. Giving a condition update each morning and whenever changes occur.
- C. Limiting visitation from children into the critical care u nit.
- D. Providing beverages and snacks in the waiting room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving regular condition updates promotes transparency and communication, reducing anxiety for the family. This intervention helps them stay informed and involved in the patient's care. Choice A may lead to caregiver fatigue and is not sustainable. Choice C limits family support and may increase stress. Choice D focuses on comfort but does not address the family's need for information.
A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
- A. Administration of 6 mg of midazolam and initiation of a continuous midazolam infusion.
- B. Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initia tion of a continuous morphine infusion.
- C. Hourly increases of the midazolam (Versed) infusion b y 100% dose increments.
- D. Hourly increases of the morphine infusion by 100% dose increments.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort.
2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea.
3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea.
4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario.
5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as