The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.
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A child with Leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?
- A. Allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated
- B. Restrict foods brought from fast food restaurants
- C. Recommend eating the same foods as siblings eat at home
- D. Encourage a variety of large portions of food at every meal
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: A child with Leukemia undergoing chemotherapy often experiences anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, leading to altered nutrition.
Step 2: Allowing the child to eat foods desired and tolerated promotes intake, ensuring adequate nutrition.
Step 3: Restricting foods (Choice B) can exacerbate the child's already limited intake and lead to nutritional deficiencies.
Step 4: Recommending the same foods as siblings (Choice C) may not address the specific needs of the child undergoing chemotherapy.
Step 5: Encouraging large portions of food (Choice D) may overwhelm the child and worsen their symptoms.
A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
- B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
- C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
- D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because full-thickness burns destroy nerve endings, resulting in the absence of pain sensation. The dry, waxy, and white appearance indicates tissue destruction extending through the epidermis and dermis. Choices A and D are incorrect because dry, waxy, and white appearance signifies a deeper burn, not a minor or superficial burn, and second-degree burns typically involve pain sensation. Choice B is incorrect as nerve compression does not explain the lack of pain sensation in a full-thickness burn.
Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing is prescribed for a client with pneumonia. Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. High levels of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity.
2. Oxygen toxicity can cause lung damage and respiratory distress.
3. To prevent oxygen toxicity, it is crucial to monitor and limit the duration and amount of oxygen administered.
4. Therefore, avoiding the administration of high levels of oxygen for extended periods is the most effective intervention to prevent oxygen toxicity.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administering a sedative does not address the root cause of oxygen toxicity and can mask symptoms.
C: Removing the nasal cannula at night can lead to hypoxia and is not a safe practice.
D: Running oxygen through a hydration source does not prevent oxygen toxicity and is not a recognized intervention.
A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 indicates deep unconsciousness, which is classified as a coma. A GCS score of 3 signifies the lowest possible level of consciousness and is associated with a very poor prognosis due to the severity of neurological impairment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increased intracranial pressure may be present in comatose patients but is not solely indicated by a GCS score of 3. A good prognosis is unlikely with a GCS score of 3. Being unconscious with a GCS score of 3 does not equate to being conscious but disoriented as in choice C.
An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse-manager should ask the nurses to meet to identify ways of working together. This is the best action because it promotes open communication, collaboration, and conflict resolution between the two nurses. By facilitating a discussion between them, the nurse-manager can help address the underlying issues, clarify misunderstandings, and find common ground for effective teamwork. This approach encourages mutual understanding and fosters a positive working relationship.
A: Having both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant does not directly address the conflict between them.
B: While listening actively and offering suggestions is important, involving both nurses in the discussion is crucial for resolving the conflict.
C: Asking the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies does not involve the new graduate in the conversation and may not address the overall issue.