The nurse is planning care for the client with a Stage II pressure ulcer on the ball of the right foot. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's care? Select all that apply.
- A. Obtain cultures of the wound daily.
- B. Clean vigorously to remove dead tissue.
- C. Cover with a protective dressing.
- D. Reposition at least every two hours.
- E. Elevate the right heel completely off the bed.
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: The dressing protects the underlying wound and provides a moist environment for healing. The client should be repositioned at least every 2 hours. Positioning devices are utilized to keep the load or pressure off the wound. Daily wound cultures are unnecessary, as all wounds contain bacteria. The wound should be cleansed gently to prevent further tissue trauma.
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On inspecting the client's eye, the nurse will note which symptom of conjunctivitis in addition to erythema?
- A. Dried drainage along the eyelid
- B. Lack of pupil response to light
- C. Bulging of the eye from the orbit
- D. Loss of moisture on the cornea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Conjunctivitis often presents with dried, crusty drainage along the eyelid.
The nurse is working with clients in an aesthetic surgery center. Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client undergoing a chemical peel?
- A. Teach the client to expect extreme swelling after the procedure.
- B. Apply the chemical mixture directly to skin after the face is cleansed.
- C. Administer general anesthesia to the client prior to the procedure.
- D. Explain that there will be no pain or discomfort during the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying the chemical post-cleansing ensures efficacy and safety. Extreme swelling is not typical, general anesthesia is unnecessary, and mild discomfort is expected.
The nurse is caring for a client with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the chest area. Which assessment data would warrant notifying the health-care provider?
- A. The client is complaining of severe pain.
- B. The client’s pulse oximeter reading is 95%.
- C. The client has T 100.4°F, P 100, R 24, and BP 102/60.
- D. The client’s urinary output is 50 mL in two (2) hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever, tachycardia, and hypotension suggest sepsis or hypovolemia, requiring immediate HCP notification. Pain is expected, 95% SpO2 is acceptable, and low urine output is secondary.
The ED nurse is caring for a client admitted with extensive, deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns. Which interventions should the nurse implement? List in order of priority.
- A. Estimate the amount of burned area using the rule of nines.
- B. Insert two (2) 18-gauge catheters and begin fluid replacement.
- C. Apply sterile saline dressings to the burned areas.
- D. Determine the client’s airway status.
- E. Administer morphine sulfate, IV.
Correct Answer: D,B,E,A,C
Rationale: Priority: 1) Airway status (ABCs); 2) IV catheters/fluids (prevent shock); 3) Morphine (pain control); 4) Rule of nines (guide resuscitation); 5) Sterile dressings (infection prevention).
Which action is the nurse's immediate priority?
- A. Rub petroleum jelly into the burned areas.
- B. Wrap the affected areas with a clean cloth.
- C. Apply cool water to the burns.
- D. Roll the victim to smother the flames.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Smothering flames stops the burning process, the immediate priority.
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