Nokea
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect may indicate pulmonary edema. This condition occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to symptoms like coughing. The increased blood volume and pressure during pregnancy can exacerbate the client's existing heart condition, resulting in pulmonary edema. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing when lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not typically associated with a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) would not directly lead to a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion.
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The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
- A. Changing cat litter
- B. Frequent vaginal examination during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes
- D. Preterm premature rupture of the membranes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Changing cat litter exposes the woman to Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite associated with chorioamnionitis. It is a known risk factor as the infection can spread to the fetus.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B (Frequent vaginal examination during labor): This does not directly increase the risk of chorioamnionitis.
C (Gestational diabetes): While gestational diabetes can have other complications, it is not a direct risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
D (Preterm premature rupture of the membranes): While this can increase the risk of infection, it is not a specific risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
The nurse is caring for a woman with a history of a previous preterm birth. Based on current knowledge related to cervical incompetency, which should the nurse do?
- A. Prepare the woman for an abdominal ultrasound
- B. Place the patient on her left side to increase perfusion to the fetus
- C. Be prepared to discuss the action and side effects of progesterone
- D. Monitor the patient’s blood pressure closely
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because progesterone is recommended for women with a history of preterm birth due to cervical incompetency. Progesterone helps to reduce the risk of another preterm birth by supporting the cervix and preventing it from opening too early. It is important for the nurse to discuss the action and side effects of progesterone with the patient to ensure informed decision-making.
Choice A is incorrect as an abdominal ultrasound is not directly related to managing cervical incompetency. Choice B is incorrect as positioning the patient on her left side does not address the issue of cervical incompetency. Choice D is also incorrect as monitoring blood pressure is not the primary intervention for managing cervical incompetency in this case.
The nurse is caring for a client with severe hyperemesis gravidarum. She is 10 weeks gestation and has a 10% weight loss. The client is being admitted for fluid and electrolyte replacement. The nurse is aware it is important to check which deficiency that puts the client at risk for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Thiamine
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiamine. Thiamine deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy in patients with severe hyperemesis gravidarum due to poor nutrient absorption and inadequate dietary intake. This condition can cause neurological symptoms like confusion and ataxia. Folic acid (A) deficiency is common in pregnancy but is not directly related to Wernicke's encephalopathy. Vitamin D (B) deficiency is associated with bone health and immune function, not neurological symptoms. Glucose (D) is important for energy production but is not directly linked to Wernicke's encephalopathy. Checking thiamine levels is crucial to prevent neurological complications in this client.
The nurse is caring for a client who is at 24 weeks gestation. Which assessment requires further intervention?
- A. Hemoglobin 11 and hematocrit 33
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80
- C. Patient has slight pedal swelling
- D. Urine dipstick for protein 3+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick reading of 3+ for protein indicates significant proteinuria, which can be a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia poses serious risks to both the mother and the fetus, requiring immediate medical intervention.
Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels within normal range for pregnancy.
Choice B: Blood pressure slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age.
Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy and may not indicate a serious issue at this time.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours. Methotrexate is excreted in urine and can be harmful if it comes into contact with others. Flushing the toilet twice helps to minimize the risk of exposure to others. Choice A is incorrect because although folic acid supplementation may be necessary with methotrexate, it is not the priority in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as the client should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if any concerning symptoms occur, rather than waiting for 6 weeks. Choice D is incorrect as the client needs to avoid certain activities for a period of time after receiving methotrexate to prevent complications.