Nokea
The nurse is preparing the care plan for a 45-year-old client who has had a radical prostatectomy. Which psychosocial and physiological problem should be included in the plan?
- A. Altered coping.
- B. High risk for hemorrhage.
- C. Sexual impotence.
- D. Risk for electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sexual impotence is a common issue post-radical prostatectomy due to nerve damage, impacting psychosocial and physiological well-being. Coping, hemorrhage, and electrolyte imbalance are less specific.
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The charge nurse is making rounds on the genitourinary surgery floor. Which action by the primary nurse warrants immediate intervention?
- A. The nurse elevates the scrotum of a client who has had an orchiectomy.
- B. The nurse encourages the client to cough, although he complains of pain.
- C. The nurse empties the client’s JP drain and leaves it rounded.
- D. The nurse asks the UAP to empty a catheter drainage bag.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging coughing despite pain risks complications (e.g., bleeding) post-surgery; pain control is needed first. Scrotal elevation, JP drain management, and UAP delegation are appropriate.
The male client complains of mucus-like drainage from the rectum accompanied by rectal pain and diarrhea. Which interview question should the nurse ask the client?
- A. Do you have difficulty trying to urinate?'
- B. Have you had rectal sexual intercourse?'
- C. Do you eat a high-fiber diet and drink lots of fluids?'
- D. Does the diarrhea alternate with constipation?'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rectal intercourse is a risk for proctitis or STDs causing mucus, pain, and diarrhea. Urination, diet, and diarrhea patterns are less specific.
If the client asks about long-term consequences that are associated with this disorder, the nurse accurately identifies which consequence?
- A. Cancer of the cervix
- B. Premature labors
- C. Spontaneous abortions
- D. Difficulty getting pregnant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes, leading to infertility or difficulty conceiving.
Which specific complication should the nurse assess for in the client with a uterine prolapse recovering from an anterior and posterior repair?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Atelectasis.
- C. Allen sign.
- D. Deep vein thrombosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis is a significant risk post-pelvic surgery due to immobility and venous stasis. Orthostatic hypotension is unrelated, atelectasis is a respiratory risk, and Allen sign pertains to arterial occlusion.
The client has had a total abdominal hysterectomy for cancer of the uterus. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach?
- A. The client should take HRT every day to prevent bone loss.
- B. The client should practice pelvic rest until seen by the HCP.
- C. The client can drive a car as soon as she is discharged from the hospital.
- D. The client should expect some bleeding after this procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic rest (no intercourse, tampons) prevents complications post-hysterectomy until HCP clearance. HRT is individualized, driving is restricted initially, and bleeding is abnormal.