Nokea
The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes. The client is to receive 10 units of NPH insulin and 5 units of regular insulin in the same syringe. Which action is correct?
- A. Draw up the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
- B. Draw up the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
- C. Mix the insulins in a separate vial before drawing up.
- D. Administer the insulins in two separate injections.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To prevent contamination, draw up regular (clear) insulin first, then NPH (cloudy). Mixing in a vial (C) is incorrect, and separate injections (D) are unnecessary.
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A burn client's care plan reveals an expected outcome of no localized or systemic infection. Which assessment by the nurse supports this outcome?
- A. Wound culture results showing minimal bacteria
- B. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine
- C. White blood cell count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Temperature elevation of 101°F
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Minimal bacteria in wound cultures indicates no localized infection, supporting the outcome. Cloudy urine (B), elevated WBC (C), and fever (D) suggest possible infection.
A client sustained second- and third-degree burns to his face, neck, and upper chest. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be given the highest priority in the first 8 hours' postburn?
- A. Fluid volume deficit secondary to alteration in skin integrity
- B. Alteration in comfort secondary to alteration in skin integrity
- C. Alteration in sensation secondary to third-degree burn
- D. Alteration in airway integrity secondary to edema of neck and face, which in turn is secondary to alteration in skin integrity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alteration in airway integrity is the highest priority for this client in the first 8 hours postburn. Failure to continually assess this client's airway status could result in poor ventilation and oxygenation, in addition to an inability to intubate the client secondary to excessive edema formation in the neck.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of abruptio placenta. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Monitor fetal heart tones
- B. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
- D. Increase IV fluid rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptio placenta can cause fetal hypoxia making monitoring fetal heart tones the most appropriate intervention to assess fetal well-being. Oxygen Trendelenburg and fluids are secondary based on clinical findings.
A psychiatric client has been stabilized and is to be discharged. The nurse will recognize client insight and behavioral change by which of the following client statements?
- A. When I get home, I will need to take my medicines and call my therapist if I have any side effects or begin to hear voices.'
- B. If I have any side effects from my medicines, I will take an extra dose of Cogentin.'
- C. When I get home, I should be able to taper myself off the Haldol because the voices are gone now.'
- D. As soon as I leave here, I'm throwing away my medicines. I never thought I needed them anyway.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client verbalizes that he is responsible for compliance and keeping the treatment team member informed of progress. This behavior puts him at the lowest risk for relapse. Noncompliance is a major cause of relapse. This statement reflects lack of responsibility for his own health maintenance. This statement reflects lack of insight into the importance of compliance. This statement reflects no insight into his illness or his responsibility in health maintenance.
A client is medically cleared for ECT and is tentatively scheduled for six treatments over a 2-week period. Her husband asks, 'Isn't that a lot?' The nurse's best response is:
- A. Yes, that does seem like a lot.'
- B. You'll have to talk to the doctor about that. The physician knows what's best for the client.'
- C. Six to 10 treatments are common. Are you concerned about permanent effects?'
- D. Don't worry. Some clients have lots more than that.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common range for affective disorders is 6-10 treatments. This response confirms and reinforces the physician's plan for treatment. It also opens communication with the husband to identify underlying fears and knowledge deficits.