The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg intravenous push, to the client with a head injury who has an IV of D5W at 50 mL/hr. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Flush the IV tubing before and after with normal saline.
- B. Administer the medication if the Dilantin level is 22 mcg/mL.
- C. Push the Dilantin intravenously slowly over five (5) minutes.
- D. Expect the intravenous tubing to turn cloudy when infusing medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with D5W; saline flush prevents precipitation. Level of 22 mcg/mL is toxic, slow push is correct but not primary, and cloudiness is avoidable.
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The male client comes to the emergency department and reports he stepped on a rusty nail at home about two (2) hours ago. Which question would be most important for the nurse to ask during the admission assessment?
- A. What have you used to clean the puncture site?
- B. Did you bring the nail with you so we can culture it?
- C. Do you remember when you had your last tetanus shot?
- D. Are you able to put any weight on your foot?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tetanus risk is high with puncture wounds; knowing the last tetanus shot guides prophylaxis, the priority per CDC guidelines.
The client complains of leg cramps at night. Which medication should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering to help relieve the leg cramps?
- A. Quinine, an antimalarial.
- B. Soma, a muscle relaxant.
- C. Ambien, a sedative-hypnotic.
- D. Darvon, an opioid analgesic.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quinine is historically used for nocturnal leg cramps, though off-label due to risks. Muscle relaxants, sedatives, or opioids are less specific.
The HCP ordered an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which statement best explains the rationale for administering this medication to this client?
- A. It will help prevent the development of congestive heart failure.
- B. This medication will help decrease the client's blood pressure.
- C. ACE inhibitors increase the contractility of the heart muscle.
- D. They will help decrease the development of atherosclerosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload and prevent ventricular remodeling, lowering CHF risk post-MI, per ACC/AHA guidelines. BP, contractility, or atherosclerosis are secondary.
Penicillin V potassium (Pen-Vee-K) 500 mg PO qid is ordered for an adult client. He reports that he took penicillin for the first time two months ago. What should the nurse do?
- A. Be sure that skin testing for a penicillin allergy has been done
- B. Observe for signs of an allergic response
- C. Withhold the penicillin
- D. Notify the physician
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client does not have a history of allergic response to penicillin, so there is no need to skin test or withhold the medication. However, allergic responses often occur after the first administration.
The client diagnosed with asthma is prescribed the mast cell inhibitor cromolyn. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I will take two puffs of my inhaler before I exercise.
- B. I will rinse my mouth with water after taking the medication.
- C. After inhaling the medication, I will hold my breath for 10 seconds.
- D. When I start to wheeze, I will use my inhaler immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn is a prophylactic, not rescue, medication for asthma; using it during wheezing indicates misunderstanding. Pre-exercise use, breath-holding, and rinsing (though less critical) are correct.