Nokea
The nurse is preparing to apply a prescribed nitroglycerin ointment to a client. The nurse should?
- A. apply it only to the client's upper chest.
- B. rub the ointment into the client's skin until it disappears.
- C. rotate the application sites.
- D. cover the ointment with a gauze dressing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rotating sites prevents skin irritation and ensures consistent absorption.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 34-year-old female is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following? Select all that apply.
- A. Rapid pulse.
- B. Decreased energy and fatigue.
- C. Weight gain of 10 lb.
- D. Fine, thin hair with hair loss.
- E. Constipation.
- F. Menorrhagia.
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E,F
Rationale: Hypothyroidism slows metabolism, leading to decreased energy, fatigue, weight gain, hair loss, constipation, and heavy menstrual periods (menorrhagia). Rapid pulse is associated with hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.
A client who has had an above-the-knee amputation is to have a dressing change 45 minutes after arriving in the postanesthesia recovery unit. The nurse should:
- A. Elevate the stump.
- B. Reinforce the dressing.
- C. Call the surgeon.
- D. Draw a mark around the site.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Excessive bleeding requires the surgeon's evaluation to prevent complications.
The client asks the nurse whether he will need surgery to correct his hiatal hernia. Which reply by the nurse would be most accurate?
- A. Surgery is usually required, although medical treatment is attempted first.'
- B. Hiatal hernia symptoms can usually be successfully managed with diet modifications, medications, and lifestyle changes.'
- C. Surgery is not performed for this type of hernia.'
- D. A minor surgical procedure to reduce the size of the diaphragmatic opening will probably be planned.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Most hiatal hernias are managed effectively with diet, medications, and lifestyle changes, making this the most accurate response.
A client is admitted to the hospital with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities. He is scheduled for an amputation of the left leg. The client says, 'I've really tried to manage my condition well.' Which of the following routines should the nurse evaluate as having been appropriate for him?
- A. Resting with his legs elevated above the level of his heart
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day
- C. Minimizing activity
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day promotes collateral circulation and maintains muscle strength in PVD, an appropriate self-management strategy. Elevating legs above the heart is contraindicated in arterial insufficiency, minimizing activity worsens ischemia, and antiembolism stockings are more suited for venous issues.
A client post-cystoscopy reports severe pain. The nurse should:
- A. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
- B. Encourage ambulation.
- C. Apply a cold pack.
- D. Notify the physician.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe pain post-cystoscopy is abnormal and requires physician notification to rule out complications.