Nokea
The nurse is providing care to a child with Down syndrome. What body system has the highest risk of congenital anomaly in a child with Down syndrome?
- A. Reproductive system
- B. Genitourinary system
- C. Cardiovascular system
- D. Gastrointestinal system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular system. Children with Down syndrome have a high risk of congenital heart defects. This is due to the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, which can lead to abnormalities in heart development. The most common heart defects include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and atrial septal defects. These defects can affect the structure and function of the heart, leading to potential complications.
Summary:
A: Reproductive system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
B: Genitourinary system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
D: Gastrointestinal system - While gastrointestinal anomalies can occur in children with Down syndrome, the cardiovascular system has a higher risk of congenital anomalies.
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Which pharmacological preparation is the least effective in relieving symptoms of dysmenorrhea?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Oral contraceptive pills
- D. Naproxen sodium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is not an anti-inflammatory medication, unlike Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium, which are more effective in reducing inflammation and pain associated with dysmenorrhea. Oral contraceptive pills (Choice C) can help regulate hormones to reduce menstrual cramps. Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium (Choices A and D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that target prostaglandins, which play a role in causing menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen, being a mild pain reliever, lacks the anti-inflammatory properties needed to effectively alleviate dysmenorrhea symptoms.
A male client reports painful urination and a creamy yellow drainage from the urethra. During the assessment, he admits to having unprotected sex. With which STI does the nurse associate these clinical manifestations?
- A. Candidiasis
- B. HPV
- C. Trichomoniasis
- D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gonorrhea. Painful urination and yellow discharge from the urethra are classic symptoms of gonorrhea, a bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI). Gonorrhea is commonly transmitted through unprotected sexual contact. The creamy yellow discharge is a key indicator of gonorrhea infection. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Candidiasis typically presents with white, cottage cheese-like discharge and itching, not yellow discharge or painful urination.
B: HPV does not cause painful urination or discharge from the urethra; it usually presents with genital warts or abnormal pap smears.
C: Trichomoniasis may cause green, frothy discharge and discomfort, but not creamy yellow discharge or painful urination.
Which best describes the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in women?
- A. Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white vaginal discharge
- B. Malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge
- C. Dysuria and thin milky-white vaginal discharge
- D. Condition is asymptomatic in women
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge due to the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. This discharge is a hallmark sign of the infection. Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white discharge are more indicative of bacterial vaginosis or yeast infection.
C: Dysuria and thin milky-white discharge are more suggestive of a urinary tract infection.
D: Trichomoniasis can manifest with symptoms in women such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort.
A woman has been diagnosed with galactorrhea. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply.
- A. Milky white discharge from one or both nipples
- B. Absence of menstrual periods
- C. Temperature intolerance
- D. Less interest in sex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Less interest in sex. Galactorrhea is the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast unassociated with childbirth or nursing. It is commonly caused by elevated levels of prolactin, which can suppress the production of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone, leading to symptoms like decreased libido and less interest in sex. The other choices, A, B, and C, are incorrect because milky white discharge from nipples (A) is a symptom of galactorrhea, absence of menstrual periods (B) is more indicative of conditions like amenorrhea, and temperature intolerance (C) is not typically associated with galactorrhea.
A client with mild preeclampsia who has been advised to be on bed rest at home asks why doing so is necessary. Which of the following is the best response for the nurse to give the client?
- A. "Bed rest will help you to conserve energy for your labor."'
- B. "Bed rest will help to relieve your nausea and anorexia."'
- C. "Reclining will increase the amount of oxygen that your baby gets."'
- D. "The position change will prevent the placenta from separating."'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reclining will help improve blood flow to the placenta, increasing oxygen delivery to the baby. This is crucial in preeclampsia to prevent complications such as fetal growth restriction.
A: Incorrect. Bed rest in preeclampsia is not primarily for energy conservation but to reduce blood pressure and prevent further complications.
B: Incorrect. Bed rest does not directly address nausea and anorexia associated with preeclampsia; it focuses on maternal and fetal well-being.
D: Incorrect. Position change does not directly prevent placental separation in preeclampsia; it is more related to maintaining adequate blood flow to the placenta.