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Which should the nurse recommend to the client to relieve premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms? Select all that apply.
- A. NSAIDs to decrease pain
- B. Exercise 5 to 6 times a week
- C. Decrease caffeine
- D. Decrease fiber
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decrease fiber intake. High-fiber foods can worsen bloating and digestive issues associated with PMS. By reducing fiber intake, gas and bloating can be minimized, alleviating these symptoms. NSAIDs (A) can help with pain but do not address other PMS symptoms. Exercise (B) can be beneficial, but it may not directly target PMS symptoms. Decreasing caffeine (C) can help with mood swings, but it is not as effective for physical symptoms compared to reducing fiber intake.
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A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
- A. Carbon dioxide laser surgery
- B. Electrocautery
- C. Surgical excision
- D. Podophyllin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
The nurse has completed instructions on ways to improve the client’s symptoms related to her rectocele. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?
- A. Weight loss will decrease pressure on the pelvic floor.
- B. Increasing fiber and water in my diet will help prevent constipation.
- C. Heavy lifting will not affect my rectocele.
- D. Kegel exercises will help with pelvic floor strength.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because heavy lifting can worsen rectocele symptoms by putting strain on the pelvic floor muscles. A is correct because weight loss reduces pressure. B is correct because fiber and water prevent constipation. D is correct because Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor.
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Purulent vaginal discharge
- B. Condylomata
- C. Malodorous vaginal discharge
- D. No clinical manifestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.
The primary fetal risk when the mother has any type of anemia is for:
- A. Neonatal anemia
- B. Elevated bilirubin level
- C. Limited infection defenses
- D. Reduced oxygen delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced oxygen delivery. Anemia in the mother can lead to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the fetus. This can lead to fetal hypoxia, affecting the baby's growth and development. Neonatal anemia (choice A) is a consequence of the mother's anemia affecting the baby after birth, not the primary risk. Elevated bilirubin level (choice B) is not directly related to maternal anemia but may occur in conditions like Rh incompatibility. Limited infection defenses (choice C) is not the primary fetal risk associated with maternal anemia, although it can be a concern in severe cases due to decreased immune response.