Nokea
Which statement by the woman indicates that she does not understand the teaching provided about postmastectomy breast reconstruction home care?
- A. I will avoid trauma to my breasts.
- B. I will need to wear a tight bra immediately.
- C. I have to empty my drains every 8 hours.
- D. I must notify the doctor if I notice any skin ulceration or changes in breast color such as redness.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because wearing a tight bra immediately after postmastectomy breast reconstruction is not recommended as it can restrict blood flow and cause discomfort. A is correct because avoiding trauma is important. C is correct because draining is necessary. D is correct because skin changes should be reported.
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A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
- A. It's important to start treatment as soon as possible, so you will receive a prescription for pills today.
- B. There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
- C. I recommend receiving an HPV vaccination today.
- D. Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment.
2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence.
3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts.
4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV.
C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts.
D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
The nurse taught a class on HPV and cervical cancer. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Most HPV infections resolve on their own within 1 to 2 years.
- B. I can get the HPV vaccination to prevent the most common types of HPV that could cause cervical cancer.
- C. Genital warts cause cervical cancer.
- D. A persistent infection of HPV type 16 or 18 can lead to cervical cancer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Genital warts cause cervical cancer.
Rationale:
1. Genital warts are caused by certain types of HPV, not cervical cancer.
2. Most HPV infections do resolve on their own, making choice A correct.
3. HPV vaccination can prevent common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer, supporting choice B.
4. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types, like 16 or 18, can lead to cervical cancer, aligning with choice D.
Summary:
Option C is incorrect because it inaccurately states that genital warts cause cervical cancer. The other choices are correct in their statements regarding HPV infections, vaccination, and the relationship between specific HPV types and cervical cancer.
The nurse has completed instructions on ways to improve the client’s symptoms related to her rectocele. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?
- A. Weight loss will decrease pressure on the pelvic floor.
- B. Increasing fiber and water in my diet will help prevent constipation.
- C. Heavy lifting will not affect my rectocele.
- D. Kegel exercises will help with pelvic floor strength.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because heavy lifting can worsen rectocele symptoms by putting strain on the pelvic floor muscles. A is correct because weight loss reduces pressure. B is correct because fiber and water prevent constipation. D is correct because Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor.
Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Premenstrual syndrome
- D. Depression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes.
2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms.
3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation).
4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus.
5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns.
6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle.
Summary:
PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.
Which best describes the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis in women?
- A. Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white vaginal discharge
- B. Malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge
- C. Dysuria and thin milky-white vaginal discharge
- D. Condition is asymptomatic in women
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Trichomoniasis is characterized by malodorous, frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge due to the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. This discharge is a hallmark sign of the infection. Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Foul, fishy odor and thick clumpy white discharge are more indicative of bacterial vaginosis or yeast infection.
C: Dysuria and thin milky-white discharge are more suggestive of a urinary tract infection.
D: Trichomoniasis can manifest with symptoms in women such as vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort.