Nokea
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's hand in warm water.
- B. Perform in-and-out catheterization.
- C. Encourage the client to void in the shower.
- D. Apply fundal pressure to stimulate urination.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is C: Encourage the client to void in the shower. This option promotes relaxation and can help facilitate urination. Warm water can help relax the muscles and promote voiding without invasive procedures like catheterization (B) or fundal pressure (D), which can be uncomfortable and potentially harmful. Voiding in the shower also maintains privacy and dignity for the client. Choices E, F, and G are not relevant to promoting urination.
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Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Placing a formula in the container to last 18 hours
- B. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 4 to 6 hours.
- C. Covering and labeling the opened formula container with the date and time.
- D. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees during feeding.
- E. Replacing the feeding container and tubing every 24 hours.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E, replacing the feeding container and tubing every 24 hours. This intervention is crucial to prevent bacterial contamination and ensure the patient's safety. By replacing the container and tubing regularly, the nurse helps maintain a sterile environment for the enteral feeding, reducing the risk of infection.
Choice A is incorrect because leaving formula in the container for 18 hours can lead to bacterial growth and contamination. Choice B, flushing the feeding tube with water every 4 to 6 hours, is important for tube patency but does not address the need for replacing the container and tubing. Choice C, covering and labeling the formula container, is a good practice for storage but does not address the need for regular replacement. Choice D, elevating the head of the bed during feeding, is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to the maintenance of feeding equipment.
The nurse should instruct the client about which of the following medications?
- A. Ranitidine
- B. Vitamin B
- C. Metoclopramide
- D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin B. The nurse should instruct the client about Vitamin B because it plays a crucial role in various bodily functions such as energy production, nerve function, and red blood cell formation. Deficiency in Vitamin B can lead to various health issues. Ranitidine, Metoclopramide, and Vitamin K are specific medications that are not typically instructed by nurses unless prescribed by a healthcare provider for specific conditions. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, but its education is usually provided by healthcare providers for specific cases.
Which client statement should the nurse report as an indication of major depressive disorder?
- A. I am unable to feel any joy since my child died
- B. I have lost interest in activities I once enjoyed.
- C. I have trouble sleeping and have no appetite.
- D. I feel guilty and worthless every day.
- E. I have been thinking about ending my own life.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because suicidal ideation is a significant red flag for major depressive disorder. This statement indicates severe emotional distress and potential risk for self-harm. Choices A, B, C, and D are common symptoms of depression but do not necessarily point to the severity and immediate risk of suicide like choice E does. Reporting suicidal thoughts is crucial for timely intervention and ensuring the client's safety.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. The test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old.
- B. Genetic screening is only necessary if there is a family history of genetic disorders.
- C. Your baby cannot eat before the genetic screening test.
- D. If the first test is abnormal, no further testing is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately states the timing for performing the genetic screening test, which should be after the baby is 24 hours old to ensure accurate results. Choice B is incorrect because genetic screening may be recommended for all newborns, not just those with a family history. Choice C is incorrect because babies can eat before the test. Choice D is incorrect as further testing may be required if the initial results are abnormal.