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The nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to the client. Which of the following client statements indicate that the teaching has been effective? Select all that apply.
- A. I am glad that I can continue to enjoy my morning cup of coffee.
- B. "I can use aspirin to manage the pain in my knee.
- C. I will drink alcohol with food to prevent more stomach ulcers
- D. I will immediately report any dark stools to my health care provider.
- E. "I will request a prescription for varenicline from my health care provider."
Correct Answer: D,E
Rationale: It is important that clients with peptic ulcer disease understand the signs and symptoms of a recurrence of gastrointestinal
bleeding (ie, melena, hematemesis). If these symptoms occur, the client should immediately notify the health care provider
to prevent life-threatening complications (eg, hemorrhagic shock) (Option 4).
To prevent new peptic ulcer formation or exacerbation, the nurse should instruct clients to limit activities that stimulate
production of gastric acid and impair ulcer healing (eg, smoking). Varenicline is a partial nicotine agonist that aids in smoking
cessation and may be useful for this client
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Drag words from the choices below to fill in the blanks. The nurse gathers supplies for medication administration. The nurse recognizes that the priority prescriptions are -------and ----------
- A. 50% dextrose IV PRN
- B. 0.9% sodium chloride IV bolus
- C. Potassium chloride IV PRN|
- D. Regular insulin continuous IV infusion
- E. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride IV infusion
Correct Answer: E,B
Rationale: The priority intervention for management of diabetic ketoacidosis is fluid resuscitation with isotonic IV fluid, typically starting with large-voli
0.9% sodium chloride IV boluses (eg, 1 L/hr) to prevent life-threatening hypovolemic shock. Fluid resuscitation also helps normalize
glucose and electrolyte levels via hemodilution. After initial large-volume boluses are complete, either hypotonic or isotonic IV fluids are
administered at continuous rate. Administration of regular insulin continuous IV infusion is also essential to correct hyperglycemia.
For each potential intervention, click to specify if the intervention is expected or not expected for the care of the client.
- A. Daily weights
- B. IV furosemide
- C. Fluid restriction
- D. Supplemental oxygen
- E. Antihypertensive medications
- F. Nebulized albuterol breathing treatments
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Expected interventions for acute decompensated heart failure (HF) focus on reducing cardiac workload and improving
oxygenation. These include:
• Daily weights should be performed to monitor fluid volume status and guide treatment. Ideally, daily weights should be
performed at the same time of day, on the same scale, and with the client wearing the same amount of clothing.
• Diuretics (eg, furosemide) prevent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, which increases fluid excretion in
urine and decreases preload. Diuretics provide symptomatic relief by reducing pulmonary congestion and peripheral
edema. These are the cornerstone of therapy and often a priority after oxygen therapy.
• Fluid restriction is indicated to decrease circulating fluid volume and prevent excess strain on the heart.
• Supplemental oxygen should be administered to improve oxygen delivery in clients with HF due to impaired gas
exchange from pulmonary edema.
• Antihypertensive medications reduce cardiac workload and improve contractility by lowering blood pressure (ie,
afterload).
Nebulized albuterol is a bronchodilator administered to improve oxygenation in clients with reactive airway disease (eg.
asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). Bronchodilators will not improve oxygenation in clients with pulmonary
edema and are not expected for treatment of HF.
Complete the following sentence/sentences by choosing from the list of options. The nurse recognizes that the client is most likely experiencing ----------interventions to prevent ---------
- A. Pleural effusion
- B. Systemic emboli
- C. Cardiac tamponade
- D. pneumonia
- E. pericarditis
- F. Infective endocarditis
Correct Answer: F,B
Rationale: The nurse recognizes that the client is most likely experiencing infective endocarditis (lE) and should prioritize interventions
to prevent systemic emboli.
The client is most likely experiencing IE based on the history of a recent dental procedure and clinical findings of infection (eg,
fever, flu-like symptoms), microemboli (eg, splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions), and cardiac murmur. In addition to
microemboli, larger pieces of vegetation can break off the heart valve and embolize to various organs, causing life-threatening
complications (eg, stroke, spleen/kidney infarction).
Drag words from the choices below to fill in the blank/blanks. The nurse understands that treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis is resolved when the-----------,--------, and ----------
- A. Urine output is >30 mL/hr
- B. Blood glucose is <200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L)
- C. Potassium level is >3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L)
- D. Metabolic acidosis is
resolved - E. Urine specimen is negative
for ketones
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) causes anion gap metabolic acidosis generated by the ketoacid anions and beta-hydroxybutyrate. Anion gap is
calculated based on electrolyte levels to determine the balance of cations and anions (le, acids and bases).
IV insulin infusion may be discontinued on resolution of acidosis and ketosis, which generally occurs with a blood glucose level of <200
mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L). However, measurement of serum glucose alone is inappropriate for monitoring the response to treatment because
ketosis and acidemia may still be present. With fluid resuscitation and correction of hyperosmolality and hyperglycemia, ketoacids disappear
and the anion gap and arterial blood gas results normalize, pointing to resolution of metabolic acidosis and ketonuria ie, ketones in
urine.
The nurse is caring for a 42-year-old client in the emergency department. The nurse is reviewing the collected client data to assist with preparing the client's plan of care. Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to measure the client's progress.
- A. Administer phenytoin, Discontinue sertraline, Administer methimazole, Administer a benzodiazepine, Prepare to administer radioactive iodine
- B. Panic attack, Hyperthyroidism, Serotonin syndrome, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- C. Clonus, TSH level, WBC count, Temperature, Feelings of impending doom
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome (ie, serotonin toxicity) is a life-threatening condition caused by excess serotonin in the central nervous
system. Tramadol is an analgesic medication with serotonergic activity that can lead to serotonin syndrome when taken with a
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (eg, sertraline).
Clinical manifestations include mental status changes (eg, anxiety, restlessness, agitation), autonomic dysregulation (eg,
diaphoresis, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia), and neuromuscular hyperactivity. Treatment involves discontinuing all
serotonergic medications (eg, sertraline, tramadol) and administering a benzodiazepine to improve agitation and
decrease muscle contraction (eg, clonus), which reduces temperature.