The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?
- A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
- B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
- C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
- D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.
You may also like to solve these questions
During an examination, the nurse notices that a female patient has a round "moon"? face, central trunk obesity, and a cervical hump. Her skin is fragile with bruises. The nurse determines that the patient likely has which condition?
- A. Gigantism
- B. Acromegaly
- C. Cushing syndrome
- D. Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cushing syndrome is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity (buffalo hump) and a round, plethoric face (moon face). Excessive catabolism in Cushing syndrome causes muscle wasting, weakness, thin arms and legs, reduced height, and thin, fragile skin with purple abdominal striae, bruising, and acne. Gigantism is characterized by increased height and weight and delayed sexual development, which are not present in the patient. Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood, leading to bone overgrowth in specific areas like the face, head, hands, and feet. Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and distinct features not seen in this patient. The combination of signs described in the question aligns with the clinical presentation of Cushing syndrome.
Your patient had a stroke, or CVA, five years ago. The resident still has right-sided weakness. You are ready to transfer the resident from the bed to the wheelchair. The wheelchair should be positioned at the _____________.
- A. head of the bed on the patient's right side
- B. head of the bed on the patient's left side
- C. bottom of the bed on the patient's right side
- D. bottom of the bed on the patient's left side
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The wheelchair should be positioned at the head of the bed on the resident's left side. This positioning allows the resident to use their stronger left side to assist with the transfer, compensating for the right-sided weakness. Placing the wheelchair at the head of the bed on the patient's right side (Choice A) would not utilize the stronger left side, which is crucial for the transfer. Similarly, positioning the wheelchair at the bottom of the bed on either side (Choices C and D) would not facilitate optimal assistance from the resident's stronger side during the transfer process.
The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?
- A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
- B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
- C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
- D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.
When counting an infant's respirations, which technique is correct?
- A. Watching the chest rise and fall
- B. Observing the movement of the abdomen
- C. Placing a hand across the infant's chest
- D. Using a stethoscope to listen to the breath sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for counting an infant's respirations is to observe the movement of the abdomen. Infants typically have more diaphragmatic breathing than thoracic, so watching the abdomen provides a more accurate count. Placing a hand on the chest or listening with a stethoscope can alter the infant's breathing pattern and provide inaccurate results. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect methods for counting an infant's respirations. By observing the movement of the abdomen, healthcare providers can accurately assess an infant's respiratory rate without influencing their breathing pattern.
On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse's initial response should be to:
- A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations.
- B. Introduce him/her and accompany the client to the client's room.
- C. Take the client to the day room and introduce him/her to the other clients.
- D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client's vital signs and complete the admission search.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anxiety is triggered by change that threatens the individual's sense of security. In response to anxiety in clients, the nurse should remain calm, minimize stimuli, and move the client to a calmer, more secure/safe setting. The correct initial response is to introduce the client and accompany them to their room. This approach helps the client feel oriented, safe, and supported. Giving orientation materials or reviewing rules and regulations may overwhelm the client further. Taking the client to the day room and introducing them to other clients could increase anxiety by exposing them to unfamiliar faces. Asking the nursing assistant to get vital signs and complete admission tasks can wait until the client feels more settled and secure in their environment.
Nokea