Nokea
The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) how to do pursed-lip breathing. Evaluation of understanding is evident if the client performs which action?
- A. Breathes in and then holds the breath for 30 seconds
- B. Loosens the abdominal muscles while breathing out
- C. Inhales with puckered lips and exhales with the mouth open wide
- D. Breathes so that expiration is two to three times as long as inspiration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: COPD is a disease state characterized by airflow obstruction. Prolonging expiration time reduces air trapping caused by airway narrowing that occurs in COPD. The client is not instructed to breathe in and hold the breath for 30 seconds; this action has no useful purpose for the client with COPD. Tightening (not loosening) the abdominal muscles aids in expelling air. Exhaling through pursed lips (not with the mouth wide open) increases the intraluminal pressure and prevents the airways from collapsing.
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A client is experiencing pulmonary edema as an exacerbation of chronic left-sided heart failure. The nurse should assess the client for what manifestation?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Bilateral crackles
- C. Distended neck veins
- D. Peripheral pitting edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with pulmonary edema presents primarily with symptoms that are respiratory in nature because the blood flow is stagnant in the lungs, which lie behind the left side of the heart from a circulatory standpoint. The client would experience weight gain from fluid retention, not weight loss. Distended neck veins and peripheral pitting edema are classic signs of right-sided heart failure.
To monitor for a temporary but common postsurgical complication of a transsphenoidal resection of the pituitary gland, the nurse should regularly perform which assessment?
- A. Pulse rate
- B. Temperature
- C. Urine output
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A common complication of surgery on the pituitary gland is temporary diabetes insipidus. This results from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion as a result of surgical trauma. The nurse measures the client's urine output to determine whether this complication is occurring. Polyuria of 4 to 24 L per day is characteristic of this complication. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not specifically related to a common complication after this surgery.
After performing an initial abdominal assessment on a client with a diagnosis of cholelithiasis, the nurse documents that the bowel sounds are normal. When asked, how would the nurse describe this finding to the client?
- A. Waves of loud gurgles auscultated in all four quadrants
- B. Soft gurgling or clicking sounds auscultated in all four quadrants
- C. Low-pitched swishing sounds auscultated in one or two quadrants
- D. Very high-pitched loud rushes auscultated, especially in one or two quadrants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although frequency and intensity of bowel sounds will vary depending on the phase of digestion, normal bowel sounds are relatively soft gurgling or clicking sounds that occur irregularly 5 to 35 times per minute. Loud gurgles (borborygmi) indicate hyperperistalsis. A swishing or buzzing sound represents turbulent blood flow associated with a bruit. No aortic bruits should be heard. Bowel sounds will be higher pitched and loud (hyperresonance) when the intestines are under tension, such as in intestinal obstruction.
A client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being admitted to the hospital for treatment of a Pneumocystis jiroveci respiratory infection. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to assist in maintaining the comfort of this client?
- A. Monitoring for bloody sputum
- B. Evaluating arterial blood gas results
- C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
- D. Assessing respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and breath sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with respiratory difficulties are often more comfortable with the head of the bed elevated. Options 1, 2, and 4 are appropriate measures to evaluate respiratory function and avoid complications. Option 3 is the only choice that addresses planning for client comfort.
A client, experiencing a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea, is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus. Which expected prescription should the nurse immediately implement for this client? Select all that apply.
- A. Supplemental oxygen
- B. High Fowler's position
- C. Semi-Fowler's position
- D. Morphine sulfate intravenously
- E. Two tablets of acetaminophen with codeine
- F. Meperidine hydrochloride intravenously
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Standard therapeutic intervention for the client with pulmonary embolus includes proper positioning, oxygen, and intravenous analgesics. The head of the bed is placed in semi-Fowler's position. Fowler's is avoided because extreme hip flexure slows venous return from the legs and increases the risk of new thrombi. The usual analgesic of choice is morphine sulfate administered intravenously. This medication reduces pain, alleviates anxiety, and can diminish congestion of blood in the pulmonary vessels because it causes peripheral venous dilation.