The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes about sick day management. Which of the following instructions should be included? Select all that apply.
- A. Continue taking insulin.
- B. Monitor blood glucose frequently.
- C. Avoid eating solid foods.
- D. Drink plenty of fluids.
- E. Contact the healthcare provider if vomiting persists.
Correct Answer: A, B, D, E
Rationale: Continuing insulin, frequent glucose monitoring, fluid intake, and contacting the provider prevent complications during illness.
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A client with a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and cytomegalovirus retinitis is receiving ganciclovir. Which action should the nurse plan to take while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels for elevation.
- B. Administer the medication on an empty stomach only.
- C. Apply pressure to venipuncture sites for at least 2 minutes.
- D. Provide the client with a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ganciclovir causes neutropenia and thrombocytopenia as the most frequent side effects. For this reason, the nurse monitors the client for signs and symptoms of bleeding and implements the same precautions that are used for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. These include providing a soft toothbrush and electric razor to minimize the risk of trauma that could result in bleeding. The medication may cause hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. The medication does not have to be taken on an empty stomach. Venipuncture sites should be held for approximately 10 minutes.
Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for a client who is taking phenelzine (Nardil)?
- A. Eating a normal amount of salt in the diet.
- B. Drinking 10 to 12 glasses of water each day.
- C. Allowing 10 days to achieve therapeutic effects.
- D. Avoiding foods high in tyramine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenelzine, an MAOI, requires avoiding tyramine-rich foods to prevent hypertensive crisis.
The nurse is administering eyedrops to a client with glaucoma. Which of the following is a correct technique for instilling the eyedrops? The eyedrops are placed:
- A. In the lower conjunctival sac.
- B. Near the opening of the lacrimal ducts.
- C. On the cornea.
- D. On the scleral surface.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing eyedrops in the lower conjunctival sac ensures proper absorption and minimizes irritation or injury to the cornea or sclera.
The nurse judges that the parent of a 9-month-old infant in a hip spica cast understands how to feed the child when the parent states which of the following?
- A. I can lay my child flat and feed that way.'
- B. I'll raise my child's head up and leave the hips and legs on a pillow.'
- C. I can borrow a special feeding table to use.'
- D. It will take two of us, one to hold and one to feed.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Raising the infant's head while keeping the hips and legs supported minimizes the risk of aspiration and accommodates the hip spica cast's restrictions. Laying flat increases aspiration risk, and the other options are impractical or unnecessary.
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) to a client. The client's International Normalized Ratio (INR) is 4.0. What should the nurse do?
- A. Administer the dose as ordered.
- B. Hold the dose and notify the physician.
- C. Administer half the prescribed dose.
- D. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range (2-3), indicating a risk of bleeding, so the nurse should hold the dose and notify the physician.
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