Nokea
The nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
- A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.
- B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose
- C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
- D. testicular cancer is more common in older men.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer is indeed a highly curable type of cancer if detected early through self-examinations. This empowers the client to take control of their health. Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is detectable through self-examinations. Choice C is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the number one cause of cancer deaths in males; it is relatively rare. Choice D is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.
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A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
- A. Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician
- B. Encourage a liberal fluid intake
- C. Keep the room well lit and play some soothing music in the ground
- D. Help the client ambulate and perform a few light leg exercises#
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician.
Rationale:
1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal.
2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache.
3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation.
Summary of other choices:
B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache.
C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Mrs. Adams is scheduled for an intravemous pyelogram (IVP). Nurse Aura wpould be most concerned if the patient makes which of the following comments or statements?
- A. ”I take Senokot (laxative) daily.”
- B. “I often feel like my bladder is full even after voiding.”
- C. “My whole face turns red when I eat mussels.”
- D. “I experience headaches every 2 weeks.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.
How many liters per minute of oxygen should be administered to the patient with emphysema?
- A. 2 L/min
- B. 10 L/min
- C. 6 L/min
- D. 95 L/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
- A. Nurse’s concerns
- B. Patient expectations
- C. Current treatment orders
- D. Nurse’s goals for the patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. During a nursing health history, it is essential for the nurse to address the patient's expectations to understand their needs, preferences, and goals for their health care. By focusing on the patient's expectations, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide patient-centered care, and tailor the care plan accordingly.
A: Nurse's concerns - Incorrect. The nursing health history should prioritize the patient's perspective and needs over the nurse's concerns.
C: Current treatment orders - Incorrect. While important, this component focuses on the medical treatment plan rather than the patient's expectations.
D: Nurse's goals for the patient - Incorrect. The nurse should collaborate with the patient to set goals that align with the patient's needs and preferences, not impose their own goals.
When testing visual fields, the nurse is assessing which of the following parts of vision?
- A. Peripheral vision
- B. Distance vision
- C. Near vision
- D. Central vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.