The nurse knows that contraindication of the induction of labor includes:
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. PROM
- D. Isoimmunization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa is a contraindication for the induction of labor because the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix. Inducing labor in this situation can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and compromised blood flow to the baby. Therefore, it is important to avoid inducing labor in cases of placenta previa to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
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The nurse is educating a client about kick counts. When should the client contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours.
- B. Fewer than 5 movements in 1 hour.
- C. No movements after drinking juice.
- D. No movements for 12 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours is concerning and warrants further evaluation.
A male infant delivered at 28 weeks gestation weighs 2 pounds, 12 ounces. When performing an assessment, the nurse would probably observe:
- A. Wide, staring eye
- B. Transparent, red skin
- C. An absence of lanugo
- D. A scrotum with descended testicles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A male infant delivered at 28 weeks gestation, as described, would likely have very underdeveloped skin due to the premature birth. The premature skin is often transparent, allowing the prominent blood vessels underneath to be visible, and may also have a reddish hue due to the skin's immaturity. This characteristic appearance is a common finding in premature infants and is a result of their skin being thinner and more fragile than that of full-term infants. The other options, such as a wide, staring eye, an absence of lanugo, and a scrotum with descended testicles, are not specifically associated with premature birth and are not likely to be observed in this scenario.
A Nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks9 gestation and who has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis? Intermitted abdominal pain following the passage Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding Increasing abdominal pain with non-relaxed Painless red vaginal bleeding Dosage 200 A women at 36 weeks of gestation is placed in a supine position for an ultrasound. She begins to complain about feeling dizzy and nauseated. Her skin feels damp and cool. what would be the nurse9s first action? Obtain vital signs Provide the woman with emesis basin Turn the woman on her side Assess the woman9s respiratory rate and effort The nurse explains to a newly diagnosed pregnant woman at 10 weeks9 gestation that her rubella titer indicates that she is not immune. What is the best response by the nurse? Avoid contact with all children during the pregnancy You should receive the rubella vaccine immediately Obtain a repeat tilter in 3 months You will receive the rubella vaccine during the postpartumperiod The clinic nurse explains to Margaret, a newly diagnosed pregnant woman at 10 weeks' gestation, that her rubella titer indicates that she is not immune. Margaret should be advised to (select all that apply): Select one or more:
- A. Avoid contact with all children
- B. Be retested in 3 months c.Receive the rubella vaccine postpartum
- C. Report signs or symptoms of fever, runny nose, and generalized red rash to the health-care provider C, D Filter and block all substances from reaching the fetus Stops estrogen production Provide nutrition to the fetus Provide antibiotics to the fetus Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?
- D. respiratory gas transfer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The functions of the placenta primarily include nutrient transfer, hormone production, respiratory gas transfer, and waste elimination. The placenta does not have a role in urine formation. Urine formation is a function of the kidneys in the mother, and it is not directly related to the placenta's functions.
A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.
- A. Meconium "“ start fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A midline episiotomy increases the risk for infection in postpartum clients due to the incision made in the perineum during childbirth. This incision can serve as a portal of entry for microorganisms, leading to an increased risk of infection. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) can increase the risk of respiratory distress in the newborn but is not directly related to infection in the postpartum client. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition during pregnancy where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which poses risks related to bleeding rather than infection postpartum. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a risk factor for developing preeclampsia or eclampsia during pregnancy but does not directly increase the risk of infection in the postpartum period.
A client in the first stage of labor reports severe lower back pain. What intervention is most effective?
- A. Administer an epidural block.
- B. Encourage frequent position changes.
- C. Apply a heating pad to the back.
- D. Perform a sterile vaginal exam.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent position changes, especially to hands-and-knees or leaning forward, can relieve back pain caused by fetal position.