Nokea
What is the role of ovarian reserve testing in infertility evaluation?
- A. To determine the number and quality of remaining eggs.
- B. To assess uterine abnormalities.
- C. To monitor hormone levels during pregnancy.
- D. To predict the success of natural conception within a month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ovarian reserve testing evaluates the quantity and quality of a woman's remaining eggs, helping to determine her fertility potential. This includes tests like AMH levels, antral follicle count, and FSH levels. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to assessing uterine abnormalities, not ovarian reserve. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to monitoring hormone levels during pregnancy, not fertility evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as ovarian reserve testing does not predict success of natural conception within a specific timeframe.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient undergoing IVF asks about the risks of transferring multiple embryos. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Increased chances of multiple pregnancies, which can pose risks to both mother and babies.
- B. Reduced implantation rates due to overcrowding in the uterus.
- C. Improved success rates with no associated risks.
- D. Increased likelihood of genetic abnormalities.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring multiple embryos during IVF increases the likelihood of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications for both the mother and babies, such as preterm birth and low birth weight. This is a well-documented risk in IVF procedures.
Choice B is incorrect because overcrowding in the uterus does not reduce implantation rates; rather, it can increase the chances of successful implantation of the embryos.
Choice C is incorrect as transferring multiple embryos does not guarantee improved success rates and can actually increase the risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
Choice D is incorrect because while there is a slightly increased risk of genetic abnormalities in pregnancies resulting from IVF, the primary concern related to transferring multiple embryos is the increased risk of multiple pregnancies.
What is the role of antral follicle count (AFC) in assessing fertility?
- A. It measures uterine health and implantation readiness.
- B. It estimates ovarian reserve by counting developing follicles.
- C. It identifies hormonal imbalances affecting fertility.
- D. It predicts the likelihood of male infertility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because antral follicle count (AFC) is a direct indicator of ovarian reserve, reflecting the number of small developing follicles in the ovaries. A higher AFC indicates a larger pool of potential eggs, suggesting better fertility potential. Other choices are incorrect as AFC specifically relates to ovarian health and not uterine health (A), hormonal imbalances (C), or male fertility (D).
Which type of breech presentation is identified when the buttocks present first, with both legs extended up toward the face?
- B. A. frank
- C. B. full
- D. C. complete
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a frank breech presentation, the buttocks present first, with both legs extended up toward the face. This is a common breech presentation that requires careful monitoring during labor and birth to ensure a safe delivery. In a full or complete breech, the fetus sits cross-legged above the cervix, while in a footling breech, one or both legs are presenting. Understanding the different types of breech presentations is crucial for providing appropriate care and support during labor and birth.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. She mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms of abdominal bloating, nausea, and rapid weight gain indicate fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, a hallmark of OHSS. This occurs due to enlarged ovaries releasing excessive fluid into the abdomen. It is important to monitor patients like Lori closely for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Ovulation - Symptoms described are not typical of normal ovulation.
B: Premenstrual syndrome - Symptoms are not consistent with typical PMS symptoms.
D: Failed ovulation induction - Symptoms of weight gain and bloating are not indicative of failed ovulation induction but rather a complication of the treatment.
A nurse is instructing a patient on the role of folic acid in preconception care. What is the correct explanation?
- A. Folic acid prevents iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy.
- B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus.
- C. Folic acid is only necessary during the first trimester of pregnancy.
- D. Folic acid enhances the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because folic acid plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus during early pregnancy. Folic acid is essential for proper development of the neural tube, which forms the baby's brain and spinal cord. This is why it is particularly important during preconception care and in the early stages of pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is not specifically for preventing iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as folic acid is important throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid does not directly enhance the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.