Nokea
The nurse monitoring a postoperative client should recognize which behaviors as indicators that the client is in pain? Select all that apply.
- A. Gasping
- B. Lip biting
- C. Muscle tension
- D. Pacing activities
- E. Staring out the window
- F. Asking for the television to be turned off
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: The nurse should assess verbalization, vocal response, facial and body movements, and social interaction as indicators of pain. Behavioral indicators of pain include gasping, lip biting (facial expressions), muscle tension, pacing activities, moaning, crying, grunting (vocalizations), grimacing, clenching teeth, wrinkling the forehead, tightly closing or widely opening the eyes or mouth, restlessness, immobilization, increased hand and finger movements, rhythmic or rubbing motions, protective movements of body parts (body movement), avoidance of conversation, focusing only on activities for pain relief, avoiding social contacts and interactions, and reduced attention span. Options 5 and 6 are not to be assumed as pain-related behaviors because there can be a variety of reasons for such actions.
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When a client experiences frequent runs of ventricular tachycardia, the primary health care provider prescribes flecainide. Because of the effects of the medication, which nursing intervention is specific to this client's safety?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Assess the client for neurological problems.
- C. Ensure that the bed rails remain in the up position.
- D. Monitor the client's vital signs and electrocardiogram (ECG) frequently.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flecainide is an antidysrhythmic medication that slows conduction and decreases excitability, conduction velocity, and automaticity. However, the nurse must monitor for the development of a new or worsening dysrhythmia. Options 1, 2, and 3 are components of standard care but are not specific to this medication.
A client hospitalized with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis is being treated with heparin infusion therapy. About 24 hours after the infusion has begun, the nurse notes that the client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 65 seconds with a control of 30 seconds. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- B. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- C. Notify the primary health care provider of the laboratory results.
- D. Include in report that the client is adequately anticoagulated.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The effectiveness of heparin therapy is monitored by the results of the PTT. Desired range for therapeutic anticoagulation is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control. A PTT of 65 seconds is within the therapeutic range. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect actions.
The nurse has just finished assisting the primary health care provider in placing a central intravenous (IV) line. Which is a priority intervention to assure the client's safety?
- A. Assessing the client's pain level
- B. Assessing the client's temperature
- C. Preparing the client for a chest x-ray
- D. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (BP)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A major risk associated with central line placement is the possibility of a pneumothorax developing from an accidental puncture of the lung. Assessing the results of a chest radiograph is one of the best methods to determine if this complication has occurred and verify catheter tip placement before initiating IV therapy. A temperature elevation related to central line insertion would not likely occur immediately after placement. Pain management is important but is not the priority at this point. Although BP assessment is always important in assessing a client's status after an invasive procedure, fluid volume overload is not a concern until IV fluids are started.
The nurse monitors a client prescribed a thiazide diuretic for which clinical manifestations of hypokalemia? Select all that apply.
- A. Muscle twitches
- B. Deep tendon hyporeflexia
- C. Prominent U wave on ECG
- D. General skeletal muscle weakness
- E. Hypoactive to absent bowel sounds
- F. Tall T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Hypokalemia is a serum potassium level less than 3.5 mEq/L. Clinical manifestations include ECG abnormalities such as ST depression, inverted T wave, prominent U wave, and heart block. Other manifestations include deep tendon hyporeflexia, general skeletal muscle weakness, decreased bowel motility and hypoactive to absent bowel sounds, shallow ineffective respirations and diminished breath sounds, polyuria, decreased ability to concentrate urine, and decreased urine specific gravity. Tall T waves and muscle twitches are manifestations of hyperkalemia.
A client who has been diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning is asking that the oxygen mask be removed. The nurse shares with the client that the oxygen may be safely removed once the carboxyhemoglobin level decreases to less than which level?
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. 15%
- D. 25%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen may be removed safely from the client with carbon monoxide poisoning once carboxyhemoglobin levels are less than 5%. Normal carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) levels are 0% to 3% for nonsmokers and 3% to 8% for smokers. Levels of 10% to 20% cause headaches, nausea, vomiting, and dyspnea. Levels of 30% to 40% cause severe headaches, syncope, and tachydysrhythmias. Levels greater than 40% cause Cheyne-Stokes respiration or respiratory failure, seizures, unconsciousness, permanent brain damage, cardiac arrest, and even death. Options 2, 3, and 4 are elevated levels.