Nokea
The nurse is educating a pregnant client about foods high in iron. Which food should be recommended?
- A. Milk.
- B. Chicken.
- C. Spinach.
- D. Bananas.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spinach.
1. Spinach is high in iron, which is important for pregnant women to prevent anemia.
2. Milk (A) does not contain a significant amount of iron.
3. Chicken (B) is a good source of protein but not as high in iron as spinach.
4. Bananas (D) are rich in potassium but not iron, making them a less suitable choice for iron supplementation during pregnancy.
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Why was the Bradley Method originally introduced?
- A. as a novel approach to pregnancy where low-intervention, medication-free births were the goal
- B. as an education program that supported use of twilight birth
- C. as a system of supporting families wanting community birth
- D. as a program of education that focused on the importance of using a doula instead of a partner as a birth support
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: as a novel approach to pregnancy where low-intervention, medication-free births were the goal. The Bradley Method was introduced in the late 1940s by Dr. Robert Bradley with the aim of empowering women to have natural childbirth experiences without unnecessary medical interventions. This method promotes education and preparation for childbirth, emphasizing relaxation techniques, partner involvement, and natural pain management strategies. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because they do not align with the fundamental principles of the Bradley Method, which focuses on promoting low-intervention, medication-free births through education and empowerment of expectant parents.
The nurse is assessing a client in the active stage of labor. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of labor?
- A. The membranes have ruptured.
- B. The cervix is dilated completely.
- C. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.
- D. The spontaneous urge to push is initiated from perineal pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because complete dilation of the cervix marks the transition from the first to the second stage of labor. This indicates that the client is ready to start pushing the baby out. Choice A is incorrect as ruptured membranes can occur in any stage of labor. Choice C is incorrect as clear vaginal fluid expulsion is not a specific indicator of the second stage. Choice D is incorrect as the urge to push can be experienced in the first stage as well.
During the assessment of a newborn, it is most important for the nurse to report a:
- A. Temperature of 97.7 degrees Fahrenheit
- B. Pale pink, rust-colored stain in the diaper
- C. Heart rate that drops to 120 beats/min
- D. Breathing pattern that is diaphragmatic with sternal retractions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a breathing pattern that is diaphragmatic with sternal retractions indicates respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention. Staying logical, let's assess the other choices:
A: Temperature of 97.7 degrees Fahrenheit is within the normal range for a newborn and does not indicate an urgent issue.
B: A pale pink, rust-colored stain in the diaper could be due to various factors such as diet and is not an immediate concern.
C: A heart rate dropping to 120 beats/min in a newborn is generally within the normal range and does not signify a critical issue.
The nurse is caring for a client in labor with a history of cesarean delivery. What is a priority assessment?
- A. Assess for signs of uterine rupture.
- B. Monitor maternal temperature hourly.
- C. Check for signs of preeclampsia.
- D. Assess for excessive fetal movement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for signs of uterine rupture. This is the priority assessment because a history of cesarean delivery puts the client at higher risk for uterine rupture during labor. Signs of uterine rupture include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Early detection and intervention are crucial for the safety of both the mother and the baby. Monitoring maternal temperature (B) is important but not as critical as assessing for uterine rupture. Checking for signs of preeclampsia (C) is also important but not a priority in this specific scenario. Assessing for excessive fetal movement (D) is not a priority assessment in this case.
A nurse is checking postpartum orders, the doctor prescribed bed rest for 6-12 h. The nurse knows this is an appropriate order if the patient had which type of anesthesia?
- A. Spinal
- B. Pudendal
- C. Epidural
- D. General
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epidural. The rationale for this is that epidural anesthesia is a regional anesthesia that numbs the lower half of the body while allowing the patient to remain conscious. Therefore, prescribing bed rest for 6-12 hours after receiving an epidural is appropriate to ensure the anesthesia wears off gradually and the patient does not experience any complications while regaining sensation and mobility.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Spinal anesthesia also numbs the lower half of the body, but it typically wears off faster than an epidural, so bed rest may not be necessary for as long.
B: Pudendal anesthesia is specific to numbing the perineum area and does not affect mobility in the same way as epidural anesthesia.
D: General anesthesia does not target a specific area of the body and does not require bed rest for 6-12 hours postpartum.