A nurse is teaching a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The test should take 10 to 15 minutes to complete.
- B. You will lay in a supine position throughout the test.
- C. You should not eat or drink for 2 hours before the test.
- D. You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D because pressing the handheld button when feeling the baby move helps monitor fetal heart rate and movements during the test. This action allows healthcare providers to assess the baby's well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the test duration varies. Choice B is wrong as the client should lay on their left side, not supine, to prevent compression of the vena cava. Choice C is incorrect as eating and drinking are not restricted before the test.
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A nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin to a client who is postpartum. Which of the following findings is an indication for the administration of the medication? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Flaccid uterus
- B. Cervical laceration
- C. Excess vaginal bleeding
- D. Increased afterbirth cramping
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. A flaccid uterus indicates a lack of uterine tone, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Administering oxytocin helps to stimulate contractions, restoring uterine tone and reducing bleeding. Excess vaginal bleeding is also an indication for oxytocin as it helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choices B, D, and the remaining options do not directly relate to the need for oxytocin administration in postpartum care. A cervical laceration would require appropriate wound management, and increased afterbirth cramping may not necessarily warrant oxytocin administration unless coupled with other signs of uterine atony.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
- A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. Biophysical profile (BPP)
- D. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). This test evaluates the fetus's well-being by assessing fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movement, fetal tone, and the volume of amniotic fluid. In a client at 41 weeks with a positive contraction stress test, a BPP helps determine if immediate delivery is necessary due to potential fetal distress.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (A) is used to directly sample fetal blood and assess fetal oxygenation but is not typically indicated in this scenario. Amnioinfusion (B) is used to relieve variable decelerations during labor by infusing sterile fluid into the amniotic cavity, which is not relevant to a client at 41 weeks of gestation with a positive contraction stress test. Chorionic villus sampling (D) is an invasive procedure to diagnose genetic abnormalities early in pregnancy and is not indicated for assessing fetal well-being at 41 weeks.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor with a fetus in the occipitoposterior position. The nurse assists the client into a hands-and-knees position. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention?
- A. Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?
- B. Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?
- C. Do your contractions feel further apart?
- D. Has your back labor improved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Has your back labor improved?" This question is crucial because the occipitoposterior position can cause intense back pain during labor. By asking if the back labor has improved, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of the hands-and-knees position in helping relieve the client's discomfort. A: "Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?" is incorrect because suprapubic pain is not specifically associated with occipitoposterior positioning. B: "Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?" is incorrect as it does not directly address the back pain associated with occipitoposterior positioning. C: "Do your contractions feel further apart?" is incorrect as it does not focus on the back pain issue. The key is to address the specific discomfort caused by the occipitoposterior position.
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, not at risk for ectopic pregnancy (A). Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, unrelated to cervical dilation. Incompetent cervix (C) is characterized by painless cervical dilation in the second trimester. Postpartum hemorrhage (D) is a risk due to the advanced cervical dilation and effacement, making it more likely for excessive bleeding during and after delivery.
A nurse on an antepartum unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has gestational diabetes and a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (less than 95 mg/dL)
- B. A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain
- C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has an Hgb of 10.4 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL)
- D. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and reports urinary frequency and dysuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain. This client should be identified as the priority because epigastric pain in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate attention to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, and it can lead to seizures (eclampsia) if not managed promptly. The other clients have issues that are important but not as urgent as potential preeclampsia. Client A's blood glucose level is elevated but not critically high, Client C's hemoglobin level is slightly low but not acutely life-threatening, and Client D's symptoms of urinary frequency and dysuria are common in late pregnancy and do not indicate a medical emergency.