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The nurse observes the physician palpating the abdomen of a client that is suspected of having acute appendicitis. When the abdomen is pressed in the left lower quadrant the client complains of pain on the right side. What does the nurse understand this assessment technique is referred to?
- A. Referred pain
- B. Rebound pain
- C. Rovsing sign
- D. Cremasteric reflex
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When an examiner deeply palpates the left lower abdominal quadrant and the client feels pain in the right lower quadrant, this is referred to as a positive Rovsing sign and suggests acute appendicitis. Referred pain indicates pain in another area but is not necessarily manipulated by the examiner. Rebound pain is indicated when the pain of palpation is worse when the pressure is off the site. The cremasteric reflex is a superficial reflex that is present in male clients.
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The nurse is interviewing a client with internal hemorrhoids. What would the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Rectal bleeding
- B. Pain
- C. Itching
- D. Soreness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Internal hemorrhoids cause bleeding but are less likely to cause pain, unless they protrude through the anus. External hemorrhoids may cause few symptoms, or they can produce pain, itching, and soreness of the anal area.
A client is diagnosed with colon cancer, located in the lower third of the rectum. What does the nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client?
- A. Colectomy
- B. Segmental resection
- C. Abdominoperineal resection
- D. A low colectomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cancerous mass in the lower third of the rectum will result in an abdominoperineal resection with a wide excision of the rectum and the creation of a sigmoid colostomy. An encapsulated colorectal tumor may be removed without taking away surrounding healthy tissue. This type of tumor, however, may call for partial or complete surgical removal of the colon (colectomy). Occasionally, the tumor causes a partial or complete bowel obstruction. If the tumor is in the colon and upper third of the rectum, a segmental resection is performed. In this procedure, the surgeon removes the cancerous portion of the colon and rejoins the remaining portions of the GI tract to restore normal intestinal continuity.
A client is recently diagnosed with Crohn disease and is beginning treatment. What first-line treatment does the nurse expect that the client will be placed on to decrease the inflammatory response?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Methotrexate
- C. Azathioprine
- D. Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Considered first-line treatment for inflammatory bowel disease, 5-ASA drugs contain salicylate, which is bonded to a carrying agent that allows the drug to be absorbed in the intestine. These drugs work by decreasing the inflammatory response. Methotrexate or azathioprine are used when failure to maintain remission necessitates the use of an immune-modulating agent. Ciprofloxacin is used as an effective adjunct to treat the disease.
A client informs the nurse of having abdominal pain that is relieved when having a bowel movement. The health care provider diagnosed the client with irritable bowel syndrome. What does the nurse recognize as characteristic of this disorder?
- A. Weight loss due to malabsorption
- B. Blood and mucus in the stool
- C. Chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea.
- D. Client is awakened from sleep due to abdominal pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Most clients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) describe having chronic constipation with sporadic bouts of diarrhea. Some report the opposite pattern, although less commonly. Most clients experience various degrees of abdominal pain that defecation may relieve. Weight usually remains stable, indicating that when diarrhea occurs, malabsorption of nutrients does not accompany it. Stools may have mucus, but blood is not usually found because the bowel is not locally inflamed. The sleep is not disturbed from abdominal pain.
A client with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis is awaiting surgical intervention. The nurse listens to bowel sounds and hears none and observes that the abdomen is rigid and board-like. What complication does the nurse determine may be occurring at this time?
- A. Constipation
- B. Paralytic ileus
- C. Peritonitis
- D. Accumulation of gas
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lack of bowel motility typically accompanies peritonitis. The abdomen feels rigid and board-like as it distends with gas and intestinal contents. Bowel sounds typically are absent. The diagnosis of acute appendicitis correlates with the symptoms of rupture of the appendix and peritonitis. A paralytic ileus, constipation, and gas alone do not produce these symptoms.