Nokea
The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:
- A. Bladder control
- B. Quadriceps setting
- C. Client education
- D. Use of aids for ambulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quadriceps setting. After surgery, quadriceps setting exercises are crucial for preventing muscle atrophy and maintaining joint mobility. Bladder control (A) is important but typically not the major early problem. Client education (C) and use of aids for ambulation (D) are important aspects of care but not the primary concern immediately post-surgery. Quadriceps setting helps prevent complications and promote early mobility.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 36 y.o. woman who has had no prenatal care comes into the hospital in active labor for her fourth child. She has vesicles evident on her perineum. The following nursing actions are appropriate to protect the unborn baby and the staff, EXCEPT:
- A. Maintain standard precautions
- B. Prepare for the possibility that the baby may be delivered by CS.
- C. Notify the obstetrician and nurse midwife about the vesicles as soon as possible.
- D. Apply antibiotic ointment to the vesicles and place the mother in reverse isolation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. Applying antibiotic ointment and placing the mother in reverse isolation are not appropriate for managing vesicles suspected to be herpes simplex virus (HSV) during labor.
2. HSV can be transmitted to the baby during vaginal delivery, leading to serious consequences.
3. Standard precautions should always be maintained to prevent the spread of infections.
4. Preparing for the possibility of a cesarean section and notifying the obstetrician about the vesicles are important steps to protect the baby and staff from potential harm.
Mr. RR is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of brain tumor. Mr. RR’s doctor is very much concerned about the possibility of increased intracranial pressure. The following is the most reliable index of cerebral state:
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Unilateral papillary dilatation
- C. Increased systolic BP
- D. Decreased pulse pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure.
Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state.
Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure.
Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
- A. Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs
- B. Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells
- C. Paroxysms or shortness of breath
- D. Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants.
A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma.
In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Which of the ff. is a normal hemoglobin value?
- A. 38% to 48%
- B. 48 to 54 mg%
- C. 12 to 18 g/100mL
- D. 27 to 36 g/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 12 to 18 g/100mL. Normal hemoglobin values typically range from 12 to 18 g/100mL in adults. This range reflects the normal concentration of hemoglobin in the blood and is commonly used as a reference range in clinical practice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fall within the typical normal range for hemoglobin levels. Choice A (38% to 48%) is a percentage range, not a direct measurement of hemoglobin concentration. Choice B (48 to 54 mg%) and Choice D (27 to 36 g/dL) are outside the normal range for hemoglobin levels in adults. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate choice among the options provided is C (12 to 18 g/100mL) based on standard reference values for hemoglobin concentration in the blood.
Which of the ff. does the nurse understand are the reasons a patient with pulmonary edema is given morphine sulphate? i.To reduce anxiety iv.To increase BP ii.To relieve chest pain v.To reduce preload and afterload iii.To strengthen heart contractions
- A. 2 and 4
- B. 3 and 5
- C. 1 and 5
- D. 2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because morphine sulfate is given to a patient with pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety (i) and to reduce preload and afterload (v). Morphine sulfate does not increase blood pressure (ii), relieve chest pain (iii), or strengthen heart contractions (iv) in the context of pulmonary edema. Choice A is incorrect because it includes increasing BP, which is not a reason for giving morphine sulfate in this case. Choice B is incorrect because it includes strengthening heart contractions, which is not a reason for administering morphine sulfate. Choice D is incorrect because it includes relieving chest pain, which is not a primary purpose of giving morphine sulfate to a patient with pulmonary edema.