Wilma knew that the maximum time when suctioning James is
- A. 10 seconds
- B. 20 seconds
- C. 30 seconds
- D. 45 seconds SITUATION: A 45 year old male construction worker was admitted to a tertiary hospital for incessant vomiting. Assessment disclosed: weak rapid pulse, acute weight loss of .5kg, furrows in his tongue, slow flattening of the skin was noted when the nurse released her pinch. Temperature: 35.8 C , BUN Creatinine ratio : 10 : 1, He also complains for postural hypotension. There was no infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (30 seconds) because the maximum recommended time for suctioning a patient is typically around 10-15 seconds for each pass. Prolonged suctioning can lead to tissue damage, hypoxia, and increased risk of infection. In this case, given the patient's symptoms and medical history (vomiting, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension), it is crucial to limit suction time to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they exceed the safe duration for suctioning and increase the risk of harm to the patient. Choice D, in particular, is significantly longer than the recommended time and could pose serious risks to the patient's health in this situation.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which organ(s) is/are most at risk for dysfunction in a patient with a potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L?
- A. Lungs
- B. Liver
- C. Kidneys
- D. Heart
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Heart. A potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. The heart is highly sensitive to potassium levels, as it plays a crucial role in regulating the heart's electrical activity. Elevated potassium levels can disrupt this balance, leading to serious cardiac complications.
Summary:
A: Lungs - Not directly affected by potassium levels.
B: Liver - Not directly affected by potassium levels.
C: Kidneys - Kidneys regulate potassium levels but are not the most at risk for dysfunction in this scenario.
The nurse is assigned to a client with polymyositis. Which expected outcome in the plan of care relates to a potential problem associated with polymyositis?
- A. “Client will lose 2lb per week on a calorie-restricted diet.”
- B. “Client will exhibit no signs or symptoms of aspiration.”
- C. “Client will exhibit bowel and bladder continence.”
- D. “Client will exhibit alertness and orientation to person, place, and time.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Polymyositis can affect muscles involved in swallowing, leading to aspiration risk. Therefore, it's crucial for the client to exhibit no signs or symptoms of aspiration. Choice A is unrelated to polymyositis. Choice C involves issues with muscle weakness rather than aspiration risk. Choice D relates to cognitive function, not a common issue with polymyositis.
A nurse identifies Fatigue as a health problem and nursing diagnosis for a client receiving home care for metastatic cancer. What statement or question would be best to validate this client problem?
- A. I have assessed you and find you are fatigued.
- B. I analyzed and interpreted your information as fatigue.
- C. Why are you so tired all the time?
- D. I think fatigue is a problem for you. Do you agree?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate the identified health problem. By asking the client directly if they agree that fatigue is a problem for them, it promotes client-centered care and empowers the client in their own care. Choice A is incorrect as it assumes the nurse's assessment is enough to confirm fatigue. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's analysis rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect because it is a closed-ended question that may not encourage open communication or validation from the client.
Which of the following medications should then nurse explain may cause headache as a side effect?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Clonidine (Catapres)
- C. Atenolol ((Tenormin)
- D. Adalat (Procardia)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonidine (Catapres). Clonidine is known to cause headache as a side effect due to its mechanism of action affecting blood pressure regulation in the brain. Furosemide (A) is a diuretic that typically causes electrolyte imbalances, not headaches. Atenolol (C) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, which can cause fatigue but not typically headaches. Adalat (D) is a calcium channel blocker that usually causes peripheral edema, not headaches.
The nurse is evaluating whether patient goals and outcomes have been met for a patient with physical mobility problems due to a fractured leg. Which finding indicates the patient has met an expected outcome?
- A. The nurse provides assistance while the patient is walking in the hallways.
- B. The patient is able to ambulate in the hallway with crutches.
- C. The patient will deny pain while walking in the hallway.
- D. The patient’s level of mobility will improve.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient being able to ambulate in the hallway with crutches indicates that the expected outcome of improved physical mobility due to the fractured leg has been met. This demonstrates progress towards independence and recovery.
A is incorrect because the patient still requires assistance, indicating dependency. C is incorrect because denial of pain does not necessarily indicate improved physical mobility. D is incorrect because it is too general and does not directly show achievement of the specific goal related to physical mobility.