Nokea
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
- A. Has intercourse with just the spouse
- B. Makes a donation of a pint of whole blood
- C. Limits sexual contact to those without HIV antibodies
- D. Uses a'condom each time there is a sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when they limit sexual contact to those without HIV antibodies. This is because HIV is primarily transmitted through contact with body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk of an infected person. If an individual only engages in sexual activities with people who do not have HIV antibodies, the risk of exposure to the virus is significantly reduced. It is important to note that although this reduces the risk, it does not completely eliminate it, as there is still a chance of transmission through other means such as sharing needles or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
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A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. She reports that she first felt pain after manually opening her garage door and that she is taking prednisone daily. When adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Muscle wasting
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Truncal obesity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is the most likely adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy responsible for the severe back pain experienced by the client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Corticosteroids such as prednisone can lead to bone resorption and calcium loss, resulting in weakened bones and increased risk of fractures. Back pain in this case could be a sign of vertebral compression fractures due to osteoporosis induced by prolonged corticosteroid use. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor bone health in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy and consider strategies to prevent or manage osteoporosis.
Which virus causes genital warts?
- A. Cytomegalovirus
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Herpes simplex virus type II
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can infect the genital areas of both men and women. There are many different strains of HPV, some of which can cause genital warts. These warts may appear as small bumps or clusters in the genital or anal area. It's important to note that not all HPV strains cause genital warts, and some can lead to more serious conditions such as cervical cancer. Getting vaccinated against HPV and practicing safe sex can help reduce the risk of HPV infection and its associated complications.
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
- A. Glucocortocoids and androgens
- B. Mineralocortiroids and
- C. Catecholamines and epinephrine catecholamines
- D. Norepinephine and epinephrine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The adrenal cortex is the outer portion of the adrenal glands and is responsible for producing hormones known as corticosteroids. Within the corticosteroids, the adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) which are involved in regulating metabolism and the immune response. Additionally, the adrenal cortex produces androgens which are male sex hormones, although they are present in both males and females. Therefore, the correct substances produced by the adrenal cortex are glucocorticoids and androgens (Choice A).
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
- A. Dextrose 5%
- B. Lactated Ringer's solution
- C. Normal saline solution
- D. Dextrose 5% and half-normal saline (0.45%)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) is known to be incompatible with dextrose solutions (such as dextrose 5% or dextrose 5% and half-normal saline). Therefore, the nurse would plan to use normal saline solution to dilute phenytoin in order to ensure medication effectiveness and prevent any potential adverse reactions. Lactated Ringer's solution is not commonly used for diluting phenytoin as normal saline solution is the preferred choice due to compatibility considerations.
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
- A. Acne
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Heartburn
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common side effect reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec) is a persistent dry cough. This cough is due to the medication's effect on bradykinin levels in the body, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and causing the cough. While other side effects such as diarrhea and heartburn may occur, cough is the most frequently reported side effect associated with enalapril maleate. Acne is not a commonly reported side effect of this medication.