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The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?
- A. Decreasing PaO levels despite increased FiO adminis tration
- B. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels
- C. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO administration 2
- D. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.
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Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability.
A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis.
B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis.
C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process.
In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.
A 20-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking 25 to 30 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
- A. Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Discuss the use of chelation therapy.
- C. Start oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.
- D. Have the patient drink large amounts of water.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It helps replenish glutathione, which is depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. This prevents liver damage. Choice B, chelation therapy, is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Choice C, oxygen therapy, is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose treatment. Choice D, drinking water, will not address the overdose and may not be safe in high doses. Therefore, the best course of action is to administer N-acetylcysteine to prevent liver damage in acetaminophen overdose.
The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient ass ignments on the critical care unit. She assigns the experienced, certified nurse to care for thea abicrbu.cteomly/t eisltl patient diagnosed with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. She assigns the nurse with less than 1 year of experience to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of what guiding framework?
- A. Crew resource management model
- B. National Patient Safety Goals
- C. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) mod el
- D. Synergy model of practice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Synergy model of practice. The Synergy model emphasizes matching nurse competencies with patient needs for optimal outcomes. In this scenario, the charge nurse assigned the experienced, certified nurse to a complex patient requiring specialized care (sepsis, renal replacement therapy, ventilation), aligning with the model's principle of matching nurse expertise to patient acuity. Assigning the less experienced nurse to stable patients aligns with the model's focus on optimizing patient outcomes by matching nurse competencies appropriately.
A: Crew resource management model focuses on teamwork and communication to enhance safety, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
B: National Patient Safety Goals are broad guidelines for improving patient safety, not specific to nurse-patient assignments.
C: Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model focuses on integrating quality and safety competencies into nursing education, not specifically on nurse-patient assignments.
A statement that provides a legally recognized descriptiona obifrb a.cno min/tedsitv idual’s desires regarding care at the end of life is referred to as what?
- A. Advance directive
- B. Guardianship ad item
- C. Healthcare proxy
- D. Power of attorney
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directive. An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and care at the end of life. It allows individuals to specify their preferences for medical interventions if they become unable to communicate.
Summary of other choices:
B: Guardianship ad item - This does not specifically pertain to an individual's end-of-life care wishes.
C: Healthcare proxy - While similar to an advance directive, a healthcare proxy specifically designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the individual, rather than specifying their own wishes.
D: Power of attorney - This grants someone the authority to make legal decisions on behalf of the individual, but it does not specifically address end-of-life care preferences.
A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Implement more aggressive wound care strategies.
- B. Ensure adequate hydration and nutrition.
- C. Discuss the prognosis and expected outcomes with the family.
- D. Encourage increased physical activity to improve circulation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.