Nokea
The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
- A. Minimum adverse effect level
- B. Peak of action
- C. Onset of action
- D. Therapeutic range
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because the onset of action is when a drug first shows a therapeutic effect on the concentration curve, marking the start of its clinical impact. Choice A is incorrect as ‘minimum adverse effect level' isn't a standard term; it confuses with toxicity thresholds. Choice B is wrong because peak of action is the maximum effect, not the first sign. Choice D is incorrect since therapeutic range is the concentration window for efficacy, not a specific time point.
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The primary care NP sees a 4-year-old child who has received four doses of PCV 7 in the first 15 months of life. The NP should administer:
- A. PCV 7.
- B. PCV 13.
- C. PPV 23.
- D. no PCV.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because children under 5 with PCV 7 series should get one PCV 13 dose. Choice A is incorrect (PCV 7 outdated). Choice C is wrong (PPV 23 not for this age). Choice D is inaccurate (vaccine needed).
An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body may:
- A. Upregulate the total number of receptors
- B. Block the receptor with a partial agonist
- C. Alter the drug's metabolism
- D. Downregulate the numbers of that specific receptor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is correct because frequent agonist use can cause the body to downregulate receptors, reducing sensitivity to overstimulation as a compensatory mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as upregulation occurs with antagonists, not agonists. Choice B is wrong because partial agonists compete, not result from frequent use. Choice C is incorrect since metabolism changes aren't the primary receptor response.
Schedule II drugs are characterized by:
- A. High potential for abuse
- B. Low potential for abuse
- C. No accepted medical use
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because Schedule II drugs (e.g., oxycodone) have a high abuse potential with accepted medical use, per DEA rules. Choice B is incorrect as low potential is Schedule IV/V. Choice C is wrong because no medical use is Schedule I. Choice D is incorrect since only A applies.
Upregulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
- A. Increased response to a drug
- B. Decreased response to a drug
- C. An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
- D. Refractoriness or complete lack of response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because upregulation (more receptors) or hypersensitization from chronic antagonist use can cause an exaggerated rebound response if withdrawn, as seen with beta blockers. Choice A is incorrect as increased response occurs during use, not withdrawal. Choice B is wrong because decreased response isn't typical of upregulation. Choice D is incorrect since refractoriness relates to agonists, not this scenario.
Genetic testing prior to prescribing which drug could prevent serious adverse drug reactions?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Codeine
- C. Albuterol
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because genetic testing for CYP2D6 variants can prevent ADRs with codeine; poor metabolizers get no pain relief, while ultrarapid metabolizers risk morphine toxicity. Choice A is incorrect as acetaminophen metabolism isn't strongly tied to genetic variants causing serious ADRs. Choice C is wrong because albuterol's inhaled use has minimal genetic metabolism risks. Choice D is incorrect since only codeine benefits significantly from pre-prescribing genetic testing.