Nokea
The pregnancy period is:
- A. 120 days;
- B. nine weeks;
- C. 280 weeks;
- D. 280 days;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 280 days. The pregnancy period, also known as gestation, typically lasts around 280 days from the first day of the last menstrual period to the birth of the baby. This duration is calculated based on the average length of a full-term pregnancy, which is approximately 40 weeks. It is important to note that individual pregnancies may vary slightly in duration, but the standard reference is 280 days.
Explanation of other choices:
A: 120 days - This is too short for a full-term pregnancy.
B: Nine weeks - This is only around 63 days, which is far less than the average gestation period.
C: 280 weeks - This is equivalent to around 1960 days, which is much longer than a typical pregnancy duration.
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Which of the following assessments does a nurse obtain to ensure a thorough baseline history of a client?
- A. Age of menarche, the first menstruation
- B. Accident history
- C. Mother's past menstruation patterns
- D. Frequency of sexual activities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The age of menarche is a critical piece of information for understanding a woman's reproductive health history.
Each menstrual cycle is considered as a period of ________
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 42 days
- D. 14 days
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 28 days because the average menstrual cycle length is typically around 28 days, although it can vary. The menstrual cycle consists of different phases such as menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase, which collectively last around 28 days on average. Choice B (30 days), C (42 days), and D (14 days) are incorrect because they do not represent the typical duration of a menstrual cycle. It's important to note that individual variations in cycle length are common, but 28 days is considered a standard reference point.
Your 30 year old female patient is c/o bad-smelling vaginal discharge with mild itching for about 3 weeks. Douching did not help. Denies painful urination or intercourse. She noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. There are no lesions on the perineum. No lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination, there is a thin gray-white discharge. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled border (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes the findings?
- A. Trichomonas vaginitis
- B. Candida vaginitis
- C. Bacterial vaginosis
- D. Atrophic vaginitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial vaginosis. The key findings in this scenario point towards bacterial vaginosis. The presence of thin gray-white discharge, fishy odor with KOH, pH over 4.5, and clue cells on wet prep are classic for bacterial vaginosis. Trichomonas vaginitis (choice A) typically presents with yellow-green frothy discharge and motile trichomonads on microscopy. Candida vaginitis (choice B) is characterized by thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge and budding yeast or pseudohyphae on microscopy. Atrophic vaginitis (choice D) usually occurs in menopausal women due to estrogen deficiency and presents with thin, pale vaginal walls and vaginal dryness. In this case, the absence of these findings makes bacterial vaginosis the most likely diagnosis.
When a nurse is educating a group of women about the risks of breast cancer, she includes which of the following common risk factor?
- A. Older than 30 years of age
- B. Family history of breast cancer
- C. African-American heritage
- D. Breast tenderness, without any sensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Family history is a well-established risk factor for breast cancer.
A man who has been exposed to high levels of gamma radiation is sterile due to destruction of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, although he has normal levels of testosterone. Which of the following would be found in this patient?
- A. Normal secretory pattern of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
- B. Normal levels of inhibin
- C. Suppressed levels of follicle-stimulating hormone
- D. Absence of Leydig cells
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: High levels of gamma radiation cause destruction of germinal epithelium, leading to infertility.
Step 2: Normal testosterone levels indicate intact Leydig cells, responsible for testosterone production.
Step 3: Normal secretory pattern of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is expected as it regulates pituitary hormone secretion.
Step 4: Inhibin is produced by Sertoli cells (part of germinal epithelium) and would be decreased due to destruction.
Step 5: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels would be elevated, not suppressed, due to lack of inhibin feedback.
Step 6: Leydig cells are intact, so Leydig cells are not absent in this scenario.