Nokea
The pregnant patient tells the nurse that her prescribed medication is not as effective as it was before her pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. This is because your blood volume has increased
- B. Tell me how you have been taking your medication
- C. This is because your baby is receiving part of the medication
- D. Maybe the medication has expired; check the label
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy increases blood volume (50% more), diluting drugs, reducing efficacy-e.g., lower concentration per unit volume, a pharmacokinetic shift. Asking about administration checks adherence, not cause. Baby receiving drug is unlikely-placental transfer varies. Expiration is a guess, not tied to pregnancy. Blood volume explains the change, addressing her concern.
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The nurse manages care for several clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What will the priority assessment by the nurse include as related to side effects?
- A. Pain in the calf
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Low-back pain
- D. Chronic fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HRT increases clotting risk, making calf pain a priority due to potential DVT, a life-threatening side effect. Libido , back pain , and fatigue are less urgent. A ensures safety, aligning with HRT risks, making it the priority.
A client has just been prescribed with methotrexate (Trexall) for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis who did not respond to any other treatment. An important reminder for the client is to?
- A. Clay-colored stool is a normal response to the treatment.
- B. Pregnancy is not contraindicated with the use of the medication.
- C. Strict hand washing.
- D. Get a daily source of sunlight during the day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant, increasing the risk of infections. Strict hand washing and infection prevention measures are crucial. Clay-colored stools are not normal and may indicate liver dysfunction. Pregnancy is contraindicated due to the risk of fetal harm. Sunlight exposure should be limited to reduce the risk of photosensitivity reactions.
A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered
- A. . The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordere
- B. What is the nurse™s best response?
- C. It will increase your heart rat
- D.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to inform the patient that the medication, likely an antiarrhythmic agent such as digoxin immune fab (Digibind), helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm caused by digoxin toxicity to a more normal rhythm. This explanation provides a clear understanding of why the medication is being administered in cases of digoxin toxicity. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the purpose of the medication and how it will help manage the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
ACE inhibitors…
- A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone from producing effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
- B. Blocks stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
- C. Blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril and lisinopril, work by blocking the enzyme angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is responsible for converting angiotensin I into angiotensin II. By inhibiting this conversion, ACE inhibitors prevent the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-stimulating effects of angiotensin II at the receptor sites. This leads to vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced aldosterone secretion. This mechanism of action makes ACE inhibitors an important class of medications for managing conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and chronic kidney disease.
A patient with extremely high blood pressure (BP) is in the emergency department. The physician will order therapy with nitroglycerin to manage the patient™s BP. Which form of nitroglycerin is most appropriate?
- A. Sublingual spray
- B. Transdermal patch
- C. Oral capsule
- D. IV infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the emergency management of a patient with extremely high blood pressure, intravenous (IV) administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate form of delivery. IV infusion provides rapid and precise control of blood pressure by allowing the medication to take effect quickly and be titrated to the desired blood pressure level. This route of administration is crucial in acute settings like the emergency department, where immediate blood pressure management is needed. Other forms of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual spray, transdermal patch, or oral capsule, may not provide the rapid onset of action required in this critical situation.