Nokea
The primary fetal risk when the mother has any type of anemia is for:
- A. Neonatal anemia
- B. Elevated bilirubin level
- C. Limited infection defenses
- D. Reduced oxygen delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced oxygen delivery. Anemia in the mother can lead to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the fetus. This can lead to fetal hypoxia, affecting the baby's growth and development. Neonatal anemia (choice A) is a consequence of the mother's anemia affecting the baby after birth, not the primary risk. Elevated bilirubin level (choice B) is not directly related to maternal anemia but may occur in conditions like Rh incompatibility. Limited infection defenses (choice C) is not the primary fetal risk associated with maternal anemia, although it can be a concern in severe cases due to decreased immune response.
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The nurse is discussing risk factors for endometriosis with a new nurse. Which client would the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for developing endometriosis?
- A. One who smokes one pack per day
- B. One who states her menstrual cycles are irregular
- C. One who states her mother had endometriosis
- D. One who had a previous cesarean section
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because genetics play a significant role in the development of endometriosis. If a client's mother had endometriosis, there is an increased likelihood of her developing the condition. This is due to shared genetic factors that may predispose individuals to endometriosis. Smoking (choice A) is a risk factor for many health conditions but not specifically for endometriosis. Irregular menstrual cycles (choice B) may be a symptom of endometriosis but do not directly increase the risk of developing it. Having a previous cesarean section (choice D) is not a known risk factor for endometriosis.
The nurse is advising parents about feeding their infant with phenylketonuria. What formula and/or diet should the nurse suggest?
- A. Lifelong high-protein diet
- B. A formula that is low in the amino acid leucine
- C. A soy-based formula
- D. Substitute Lofenalac for some protein foods
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, substitute Lofenalac for some protein foods. In phenylketonuria (PKU), individuals lack the enzyme to break down phenylalanine found in protein. Lofenalac is a special formula with low phenylalanine content, suitable for PKU patients. Lifelong high-protein diet (A) is incorrect as it would worsen the condition. A formula low in leucine (B) is not specific to PKU. Soy-based formula (C) still contains high levels of phenylalanine.
A woman has been diagnosed with single intraductal papilloma and has nipple discharge. Which diagnostic tests will most likely be required?
- A. MRI
- B. Mammogram
- C. Core needle biopsy
- D. Ductogram
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ductogram. In a patient with single intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge, a ductogram is the most appropriate diagnostic test to visualize the ductal system for any abnormalities. A ductogram involves injecting contrast dye into the affected duct to identify any blockages or abnormalities. This test helps in determining the extent of the papilloma and planning appropriate treatment.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
A: MRI - While MRI can provide detailed images, it is not the primary test for evaluating intraductal papilloma and nipple discharge.
B: Mammogram - Mammogram is used for breast imaging but may not provide detailed visualization of the ductal system.
C: Core needle biopsy - While a biopsy may be needed to confirm the papilloma, it does not directly assess the ductal system for other abnormalities.
The nurse is providing care to a child with Down syndrome. What body system has the highest risk of congenital anomaly in a child with Down syndrome?
- A. Reproductive system
- B. Genitourinary system
- C. Cardiovascular system
- D. Gastrointestinal system
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular system. Children with Down syndrome have a high risk of congenital heart defects. This is due to the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, which can lead to abnormalities in heart development. The most common heart defects include atrioventricular septal defects, ventricular septal defects, and atrial septal defects. These defects can affect the structure and function of the heart, leading to potential complications.
Summary:
A: Reproductive system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
B: Genitourinary system - Not typically associated with congenital anomalies in Down syndrome.
D: Gastrointestinal system - While gastrointestinal anomalies can occur in children with Down syndrome, the cardiovascular system has a higher risk of congenital anomalies.
The nurse is meeting with a client who was newly diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome. She knows that the client has the potential for which diagnoses? Select all that apply.
- A. Knowledge deficit
- B. Disturbed body image
- C. Risk for type 2 diabetes
- D. Impaired mobility
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired mobility. This is because polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) can lead to obesity and insulin resistance, which in turn can increase the risk of impaired mobility due to joint pain, reduced muscle strength, and overall decreased physical activity. The other choices are incorrect because A (Knowledge deficit) can be addressed through education, B (Disturbed body image) is more related to self-esteem and body perception issues, and C (Risk for type 2 diabetes) is a potential consequence of PCOS but not directly related to impaired mobility.