Nokea
The primary role of the phosphate buffer system is to?
- A. buffer stomach acid
- B. buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide
- C. limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids
- D. buffer the urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids.
1. Phosphate buffer system consists of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-) and hydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-) ions, which can donate or accept H+ ions to maintain a stable pH.
2. Metabolic and fixed acids produced in the body can lead to pH changes. The phosphate buffer system helps to prevent drastic changes in pH by neutralizing excess H+ ions.
3. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the phosphate buffer system is not specifically designed to buffer stomach acid, carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide, or buffer the urine.
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A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. High blood pressure.
- C. Weight loss and fatigue.
- D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.
A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a
- A. The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a urinary catheter inserte
- B. As a result of this new consequent of antibiotic therapy intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing
- C. The need to expect a heavy menstrual period diagnosis in the patients plan of care?
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (E):
1. The prompt mentions a patient with a sacral pressure ulcer.
2. Considering the context, the most relevant issue would be wound care and prevention of pressure ulcers.
3. Option E is the only choice related to wound care and prevention, indicating the correct focus for the nurse.
4. Choices A, B, C, and D are unrelated to the primary concern of managing the sacral pressure ulcer.
5. Therefore, E is the correct answer as it aligns with the patient's immediate care needs.
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, 'Have you noticed any':
- A. Changes in your urination patterns?
- B. Excessive vaginal bleeding?
- C. Unusual vaginal discharge or itching?
- D. Changes in your desire for intercourse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C is correct because UTI treatment can disrupt the vaginal microbiome, leading to yeast infection symptoms like unusual discharge or itching. A is relevant but focuses on only one aspect. B and D are unrelated to UTI treatment outcomes.
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
- A. Pediculosis pubis.
- B. Contact dermatitis.
- C. HPV.
- D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
A patient is being treated with furosemide and Digoxin because of CHF. She developed UTI. Which of the following antibiotics should NOT be prescribed?
- A. Cotrimoxazole
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamycin. Gentamycin is known to have potential nephrotoxicity, which can exacerbate renal dysfunction caused by furosemide. It should be avoided in patients with CHF and UTI. Cotrimoxazole (A) can be used with caution, Ciprofloxacin (B) is generally safe, and Ampicillin (D) is a suitable choice for UTI treatment in this scenario.