Which of the following components of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is not correctly paired with its function?
- A. Renin – cleavage of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) – activation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C. Aldosterone – sodium and water reabsorption
- D. Angiotensin II – vasoconstriction and decrease of blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Angiotensin II does not decrease blood pressure; it actually increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, and ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water reabsorption, leading to increased blood volume and pressure. Therefore, D is incorrect because Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
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A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. * Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient's illness?
- A. Zanamivir
- B. Lamivudine
- C. Valacyclovir
- D. Cidofovir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral DNA replication. Zanamivir (A) is used to treat influenza viruses, not herpes. Lamivudine (B) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. Cidofovir (D) is used for cytomegalovirus and other viral infections, but not the first line for herpes. Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile in treating herpes simplex virus infections.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Scrotal.
- B. Femoral.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.
The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurse’s most appropriate action or response is to:
- A. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him.
- B. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened.
- C. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later time.
- D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This is the most appropriate action because it acknowledges the patient's normal physiological response and reassures him. It helps maintain professionalism and respect for the patient's dignity. Choice A could potentially embarrass the patient further. Choice B may ignore the patient's discomfort. Choice C abruptly halts the examination without addressing the situation. Overall, choice D is the most respectful and professional response in this scenario.
Superinfections are more common with: *
- A. Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
- B. Short courses of antibiotics
- C. Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines
- D. Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria can disrupt the balance of normal flora in the body, leading to superinfections. This is due to the broad spectrum of activity of these antibiotics, which can kill off a wider range of bacteria, including the beneficial ones.
Choice A is incorrect because narrow spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria, reducing the likelihood of disrupting the normal flora and causing superinfections. Choice B is incorrect because longer courses of antibiotics increase the risk of superinfections as they continue to disrupt the normal flora over a longer period. Choice C is incorrect because antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines do not necessarily increase the risk of superinfections; it is more about the spectrum of activity and the impact on normal flora.