Nokea
The psychiatric-mental health nurse knows that the patient's spouse clearly understands the adverse effects of lithium carbonate (Eskalith), when they say:
- A. I should call the doctor if my spouse shakes badly'
- B. I should make sure my spouse drinks as much water as possible'
- C. My spouse must remain on a salt-free diet'
- D. When the lithium level is 1.6mEq\L, my spouse can go back to work'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tremors are a common lithium side effect requiring medical attention; other options reflect misunderstanding (e.g., salt-free diet increases toxicity risk, 1.6mEq\L is toxic).
You may also like to solve these questions
An elderly client was well until 12 hours ago, when she reported to her family that during the evening she saw strange faces peering in her windows and in the middle of the night awakened to see a man standing at the foot of her bed. She admits to being very frightened. She is presently pacing and somewhat agitated in the examining room. The client's family reports that the client has recently been to the doctor, who made some medication changes, although they are unsure what the changes were. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement at the time of this client's admission?
- A. Interact with the client on an adult to child level.
- B. Place the client in a safe, nonstimulating environment.
- C. Ask client why she thinks someone would be trying to frighten her.
- D. Explain to the family that the client will be restrained for her own good.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a safe, nonstimulating environment. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because the client is experiencing hallucinations and agitation, which could be due to the recent medication changes. Placing the client in a safe, calm environment can help reduce stimulation and provide a sense of security. This intervention addresses the client's immediate needs by ensuring her safety and promoting a sense of comfort.
Incorrect answers:
A: Interact with the client on an adult to child level - This is not appropriate as it does not address the client's current state of distress and could potentially worsen the situation.
C: Ask client why she thinks someone would be trying to frighten her - This is not the priority at this time, as the client is experiencing hallucinations and agitation that need to be managed first.
D: Explain to the family that the client will be restrained for her own good - Restraints should only be used as a last resort and should not be considered
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has _____, and the nurse should _____.
- A. A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
- B. Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage
- C. Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
- D. Akathisia"¦administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin). This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, a extrapyramidal side effect of haloperidol. Dystonic reactions are characterized by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that helps alleviate these symptoms by blocking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Administering benztropine is the appropriate treatment for acute dystonia.
Summary of other choices:
B: Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage - Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect that occurs after long-term antipsychotic use, not acutely like in this case.
C: Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs - Waxy flexibility is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of antipsychotic medications
The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?
- A. Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
- B. Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene
- C. Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia
- D. Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are key indicators of improvement in schizophrenia with antipsychotic treatment. These symptoms directly relate to the patient's perception of reality and are core features of the disorder. Monitoring these symptoms provides objective evidence of the medication's effectiveness in addressing the patient's psychotic symptoms.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they mainly indicate negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as flat affect, social withdrawal, and cognitive deficits. While monitoring these symptoms is important for assessing overall functioning and quality of life, they are not the primary target of improvement with antipsychotic medications. Symptoms like delusions and hallucinations are considered primary targets for evaluating the efficacy of antipsychotic treatment in schizophrenia.
A history reveals that a patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The nurse says, "Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look."Â Which response would be most consistent with anorexia nervosa?
- A. "I'm fat and ugly."Â
- B. "What I think about myself is my business."Â
- C. "I'm grossly underweight, but I cover it well."Â
- D. "I'm a few pounds overweight, but I can live with it."Â
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the response indicates a distorted body image, a common characteristic of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of body image, leading individuals to see themselves as overweight despite being underweight. In this case, the patient's response of "I'm fat and ugly" demonstrates a negative perception of their weight and appearance, which aligns with the distorted body image seen in anorexia nervosa.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: "What I think about myself is my business" - This response does not indicate a distorted body image or negative perception of weight and appearance, which are key features of anorexia nervosa.
C: "I'm grossly underweight, but I cover it well" - While this response acknowledges being underweight, it does not reflect the distorted body image commonly seen in anorexia nervosa.
D: "I'm a
The client in whom schizophrenia has been diagnosed usually is medicated with an ____ drug.
- A. Antianxiety
- B. Antipsychotic
- C. Antidepressant
- D. Antihypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotic. Antipsychotic drugs are specifically designed to treat symptoms associated with schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. These drugs help regulate dopamine levels in the brain, which are often imbalanced in individuals with schizophrenia. Antianxiety drugs (A) are not typically used to treat schizophrenia as they target different symptoms. Antidepressants (C) may be used in conjunction with antipsychotics, but they are not the primary treatment for schizophrenia. Antihypertensive drugs (D) are used to treat high blood pressure and are not indicated for schizophrenia.