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The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?
- A. Establishing a rapport with group members.
- B. Clarifying the nurse's role and clients' responsibilities.
- C. Discussing ways to use new coping skills learned.
- D. Helping clients identify areas of problems in their lives.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.
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While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?
- A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
- B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
- C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
- D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.
April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.
Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, 'I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.' How should Carolina respond to this news?
- A. That sounds exciting, would you be willing to visit and show me the app?
- B. At this time, there is no real evidence that the app can replace our therapy.
- C. I am not sure that is a good idea right now; we are so close to progress.
- D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carolina should respond with choice A as it shows interest and willingness to understand the patient's new approach. By asking the patient to show the app, Carolina demonstrates openness to exploring the patient's perspective and the technology they find helpful. Choice B is incorrect as it appears dismissive, failing to acknowledge the patient's autonomy in choosing an alternative therapy method. Choice C is also inappropriate as it undermines the patient's decision-making and progress achieved so far. Choice D comes off as confrontational and judgmental, which could lead to the patient feeling defensive and less likely to engage in a constructive conversation.
During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?
- A. Pay close attention to and document the nonverbal messages.
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy.
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus solely on the client's verbal messages.
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them together.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client's communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.
A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
- C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.