Nokea
The serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level is elevated with some malignant germ cell tumors (GCTs) especially endodermal sinus tumors; it can be used as a measure of treatment response and during follow-up after completion of chemotherapy. However, it is normally elevated during infancy. At which age does AFP physiologically fall to normal adult level?
- A. three month
- B. eight month
- C. one year
- D. three year
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: AFP levels typically normalize by around one year of age.
You may also like to solve these questions
Several hours after returning from surgery, the nurse tells the patient that she is ordered to be ambulated. The patient asks, "Why?" Which of the following complications would the nurse correctly explain can be prevented by early postoperative ambulation?
- A. Increased peristalsis
- B. Coughing
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Wound healing  A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET K
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Early postoperative ambulation is important for preventing complications such as pneumonia. When a patient remains immobile for an extended period after surgery, they are at an increased risk of developing pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion and secretions pooling in the lungs. Ambulation helps improve lung function, promote better oxygenation, and prevent respiratory complications like pneumonia. In contrast, increased peristalsis helps prevent constipation, coughing helps prevent respiratory complications as well, and wound healing is not directly related to the need for early postoperative ambulation.
A 3-day-old neonate has a large, soft, painless mass involving the head and neck region that mostly transilluminate; CT scan reveals a cystic mass involving the neck and intrathoracic mediastinum. The BEST modality for treatment of this neonate is
- A. surgical resection
- B. injection sclerosing agent
- C. laser therapy
- D. systemic interferon therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Surgical resection is the definitive treatment for cystic hygroma.
A nurse is teaching parents about prevention and treatment of colic. Which should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid use of pacifiers.
- B. Eliminate all second-hand smoke contact.
- C. Lay infant flat after feeding.
- D. Avoid swaddling the infant.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Second-hand smoke exposure has been linked to an increased risk of colic in infants. Colic is a condition characterized by excessive, inconsolable crying in otherwise healthy infants. By eliminating all second-hand smoke contact, the nurse is helping to reduce potential triggers for colic and promoting a healthier environment for the infant. This is an important aspect of prevention and treatment that should be emphasized in the teaching plan for parents.
which of the following is true concerning rheumatic fever?
- A. it is usually associated with glomerulonephritis
- B. symptoms disappear shortly after the fever abate and the temperature returns to normal
- C. the child should resume normal activities as soon as she feels well
- D. it usually follows a streptococcal infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication of inadequately treated streptococcal infections, especially streptococcal throat infections caused by group A streptococcus bacteria. The bacteria trigger an abnormal immune response in susceptible individuals, leading to the development of rheumatic fever. The other choices are not accurate. Glomerulonephritis is a separate condition associated with certain types of streptococcal infections but not with rheumatic fever. Symptoms of rheumatic fever can persist even after the fever has subsided, and it is important for children with rheumatic fever to follow proper treatment and rest guidelines as advised by healthcare providers. It is crucial for individuals with rheumatic fever to avoid activities that could strain the heart until the condition has been properly managed.
while gently abducting the hips, the nurse feels the femoral head slip into the acetabulum. the nurse documents this finding as a positive:
- A. barlow's test
- B. jackson's sign
- C. ortolani's sign
- D. trendelenburg's sign glomerulonephritis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ortolani's sign is a physical exam maneuver used to detect congenital hip dislocation in infants. When performing Ortolani's sign, the nurse gently abducts the hips and feels the femoral head slipping back into the acetabulum. This is considered a positive finding and suggests the presence of hip dysplasia. Barlow's test, on the other hand, involves gently adducting the hip to feel for instability and potential dislocation. Jackson's sign is a maneuver for detecting hip dislocation by observing leg length discrepancy. Trendelenburg's sign is a test for hip abductor weakness. Hematuria is the presence of blood in urine and is not related to hip exams or signs.