The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.
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The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Scrotal.
- B. Femoral.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. High blood pressure.
- C. Weight loss and fatigue.
- D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.
Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and:
- A. Potassium
- B. BUN
- C. Urea
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can lead to hyperglycemia by reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in increased blood glucose levels. Thiazides also elevate uric acid levels by reducing its excretion. Therefore, the correct answer is D (Glucose).
Incorrect choices:
A (Potassium) - Thiazides typically cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
B (BUN) and C (Urea) - Thiazides may cause a slight increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels due to reduced kidney function, but not as significantly as glucose levels.
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
- A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
- B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
- C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
- D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
Which of the following drug used in the treatment of filariasis?
- A. Diethylcarbamazine
- B. Albendazole
- C. Levamisole
- D. Piperazine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diethylcarbamazine is the correct answer for treating filariasis because it targets the microfilariae, adult worms, and larvae of filarial parasites. It is specifically designed to kill these parasites and is considered the drug of choice for filariasis treatment. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not effective against filarial parasites and are used for different types of infections or conditions. Albendazole is mainly used for treating intestinal worms, Levamisole is used for parasitic infections in animals, and Piperazine is used for treating pinworm infections. Thus, only Diethylcarbamazine directly targets and eliminates filarial parasites, making it the correct choice for filariasis treatment.