Nokea
A patient with a sacral pressure ulcer has had a
- A. The risk of developing a vaginal yeast infection as a urinary catheter inserte
- B. As a result of this new consequent of antibiotic therapy intervention, the nurse should prioritize what nursing
- C. The need to expect a heavy menstrual period diagnosis in the patients plan of care?
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to presence of an
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (E):
1. The prompt mentions a patient with a sacral pressure ulcer.
2. Considering the context, the most relevant issue would be wound care and prevention of pressure ulcers.
3. Option E is the only choice related to wound care and prevention, indicating the correct focus for the nurse.
4. Choices A, B, C, and D are unrelated to the primary concern of managing the sacral pressure ulcer.
5. Therefore, E is the correct answer as it aligns with the patient's immediate care needs.
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Which of the following components of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is not correctly paired with its function?
- A. Renin – cleavage of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) – activation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C. Aldosterone – sodium and water reabsorption
- D. Angiotensin II – vasoconstriction and decrease of blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Angiotensin II does not decrease blood pressure; it actually increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, and ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water reabsorption, leading to increased blood volume and pressure. Therefore, D is incorrect because Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure.
In which of the following scenarios is administration of calcium unwise with hyperkalemia?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis.
- B. Nephrotoxic ATN.
- C. Ischaemia ATN.
- D. Acute glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acute glomerulonephritis. In this scenario, administering calcium is unwise with hyperkalemia because acute glomerulonephritis can lead to decreased glomerular filtration rate, which impairs the excretion of potassium. Calcium administration can worsen hyperkalemia by shifting potassium out of cells and into the bloodstream.
Rhabdomyolysis (choice A) can cause hyperkalemia due to cell breakdown, and calcium may be beneficial to stabilize cell membranes. Nephrotoxic ATN (choice B) and ischemic ATN (choice C) are both conditions where calcium administration can help protect kidneys from further damage, but in acute glomerulonephritis, the risk of worsening hyperkalemia outweighs the potential benefits of calcium administration.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Scrotal.
- B. Femoral.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.
A 59-year-old patient has been diagnosed with prostatitis and is being seen at the clinic for complaints of burning and pain during urination. He is experiencing:
- A. Dysuri
- C. Nocturi
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysuria. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination, which is a common symptom of prostatitis due to inflammation of the prostate gland. The patient's complaint of burning and pain during urination aligns with the definition of dysuria.
B: This choice is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information related to the patient's symptoms.
C: Nocturia is the increased need to urinate at night and is not directly related to the patient's complaint of burning and pain during urination.
D: This choice is also incomplete and does not address the patient's specific symptoms of prostatitis.
A patient has very high plasma uric acid and has high risk of developing acute uric acid nephropathy. Which of the following agent should be avoided?
- A. Ethacrynic acid
- B. Acetazolamide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic which can increase uric acid levels in the blood, potentially worsening the patient's condition. Ethacrynic acid (A) is also a loop diuretic and can have similar effects. Acetazolamide (B) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and may increase urinary excretion of uric acid, which can be beneficial in this case. Hydrochlorothiazide (C) is a thiazide diuretic that can actually lower uric acid levels by increasing urinary excretion. Therefore, the best choice to avoid in a patient with high plasma uric acid and risk of acute uric acid nephropathy is furosemide.