Quizlet Genitourinary System

Quizlet Genitourinary System Related

Review Quizlet Genitourinary System related questions and content

A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:

  • A. Pediculosis pubis.
  • B. Contact dermatitis.
  • C. HPV.
  • D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.

Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.

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Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and:

  • A. Potassium
  • B. BUN
  • C. Urea
  • D. Glucose
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can lead to hyperglycemia by reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in increased blood glucose levels. Thiazides also elevate uric acid levels by reducing its excretion. Therefore, the correct answer is D (Glucose).
Incorrect choices:
A (Potassium) - Thiazides typically cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
B (BUN) and C (Urea) - Thiazides may cause a slight increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels due to reduced kidney function, but not as significantly as glucose levels.

Which macrolide antibiotic that can be given once a day for 3 days for empirical treatment of ENT, respiratory and genital infections?

  • A. Erythromycin
  • B. Azithromycin
  • C. Clarithromycin
  • D. Roxithromycin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Azithromycin. It is preferred for short-term treatment due to its long half-life allowing once-daily dosing. Azithromycin has a broad spectrum of activity against many pathogens causing ENT, respiratory, and genital infections. It is well-tolerated and has fewer drug interactions. Other choices like A: Erythromycin have a higher frequency of dosing and more side effects. C: Clarithromycin and D: Roxithromycin are not typically given once daily for 3 days.

The primary role of the phosphate buffer system is to?

  • A. buffer stomach acid
  • B. buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide
  • C. limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids
  • D. buffer the urine
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids.
1. Phosphate buffer system consists of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-) and hydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-) ions, which can donate or accept H+ ions to maintain a stable pH.
2. Metabolic and fixed acids produced in the body can lead to pH changes. The phosphate buffer system helps to prevent drastic changes in pH by neutralizing excess H+ ions.
3. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the phosphate buffer system is not specifically designed to buffer stomach acid, carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide, or buffer the urine.

The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.

  • A. Scrotal.
  • B. Femoral.
  • C. Direct inguinal.
  • D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.

In the process of renal autoregulation,

  • A. the loop of Henle reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions
  • B. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water
  • C. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate
  • D. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct:
1. Renal autoregulation maintains a constant glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
2. If the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water, it helps regulate the body's fluid balance.
3. Reabsorbing less water in the collecting tubule helps prevent excessive fluid loss or retention.
4. This process ensures that the body maintains appropriate blood volume and blood pressure.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Loop of Henle reabsorbs ions, not more sodium and chloride ions.
C: Afferent arterioles constrict to decrease GFR, not dilate to increase it.
D: Efferent arterioles constrict to maintain GFR, not dilate to allow faster blood flow.

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