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A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, 'Have you noticed any':
- A. Changes in your urination patterns?
- B. Excessive vaginal bleeding?
- C. Unusual vaginal discharge or itching?
- D. Changes in your desire for intercourse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
C is correct because UTI treatment can disrupt the vaginal microbiome, leading to yeast infection symptoms like unusual discharge or itching. A is relevant but focuses on only one aspect. B and D are unrelated to UTI treatment outcomes.
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The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.
Which macrolide antibiotic that can be given once a day for 3 days for empirical treatment of ENT, respiratory and genital infections?
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Azithromycin
- C. Clarithromycin
- D. Roxithromycin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Azithromycin. It is preferred for short-term treatment due to its long half-life allowing once-daily dosing. Azithromycin has a broad spectrum of activity against many pathogens causing ENT, respiratory, and genital infections. It is well-tolerated and has fewer drug interactions. Other choices like A: Erythromycin have a higher frequency of dosing and more side effects. C: Clarithromycin and D: Roxithromycin are not typically given once daily for 3 days.
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onychomycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinafine
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotericin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Terbinafine is a fungicidal drug that inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme, disrupting fungal cell membrane synthesis.
Step 2: Onychomycosis of toenails is a common fungal infection that terbinafine is specifically effective against.
Step 3: The patient being a 56-year-old woman with diabetes may require a drug with good efficacy and safety profile, making terbinafine an appropriate choice.
Step 4: Griseofulvin (A) works by disrupting microtubule function, not inhibiting squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) is an azole antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis, not squalene epoxidase. Amphotericin B (D) is a polyene antifungal used for systemic mycoses, not onychomycosis.
Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment.
2. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, preventing viral replication.
3. Lamivudine, Efavirenz, and Stavudine are not protease inhibitors but work through different mechanisms.
4. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Stavudine is another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
Summary:
Ritonavir is the correct answer as it directly targets the HIV protease enzyme, unlike the other options which act on reverse transcriptase enzymes.
A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign
- A. When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract functioning cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. BPH can cause urinary symptoms.
2. Cystoscopy is a common diagnostic test.
3. Temporary complications include UTI or urinary retention.
4. BPH affects a significant number of nephrons.
5. Choice A aligns with BPH pathophysiology and common complications.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct due to BPH affecting nephrons and causing urinary symptoms leading to temporary complications like UTI. Other choices lack relevance to BPH or its complications.