Nokea
A 45-year-old woman is seeking advice on contraception. She is considering using an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse should inform her that the IUD is effective for:
- A. 5 to 10 years.
- B. 1 to 2 years.
- C. 3 to 5 years.
- D. Indefinitely.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 5 to 10 years. IUDs are long-acting reversible contraceptives effective for 5 to 10 years depending on the type. Hormonal IUDs last around 5 years, while copper IUDs can last up to 10 years. This extended duration provides reliable contraception for an extended period with minimal user intervention.
Choice B: 1 to 2 years is incorrect because IUDs have a longer duration of effectiveness.
Choice C: 3 to 5 years is incorrect as it falls short of the typical duration of effectiveness for most IUD types.
Choice D: Indefinitely is incorrect as IUDs do have a maximum effective period, after which they need to be removed or replaced.
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The staff educator is giving a class for a group of biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician?
- A. Scant hematuria
- B. Renal colic
- C. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis
- D. Temperature 100.2F orally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Renal colic is a symptom of possible kidney stones or obstruction, which can lead to severe pain and require immediate medical attention.
Step 2: Scant hematuria may be common after a biopsy and does not necessarily indicate an urgent issue.
Step 3: Chronic glomerulonephritis in a 64-year-old patient is a chronic condition that may not require immediate physician notification.
Step 4: A temperature of 100.2F orally is slightly elevated but not a critical finding that would warrant immediate physician notification.
Summary:
Renal colic is the correct answer as it indicates a potential urgent issue requiring immediate physician notification. Scant hematuria, chronic glomerulonephritis, and a slightly elevated temperature are not as concerning in this context.
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
- A. Pediculosis pubis.
- B. Contact dermatitis.
- C. HPV.
- D. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Herpes simplex virus type 2. The presence of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia, along with symptoms of vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever, are classic signs of genital herpes caused by HSV-2. The inguinal lymphadenopathy further supports the diagnosis. Herpes simplex virus is known for causing painful vesicular lesions in the genital area.
Choice A, Pediculosis pubis, is incorrect as it presents with itching and nits (eggs) attached to the hair shafts, not vesicles. Choice B, Contact dermatitis, typically presents with red, itchy, and inflamed skin due to an allergic reaction. Choice C, HPV, does not typically present with vesicles but rather with warts or abnormal cell changes on the skin or mucous membranes.
The main reason for the use of combination therapy in the drug treatment of Tuberculosis is:
- A. Reduce the incidence of side effects
- B. Delay or prevent the emergence of resistance
- C. Synergistically increase antimycobacterial activity
- D. Provide prophylaxis against other bacterial infections
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main reason for using combination therapy in TB treatment is to delay or prevent the emergence of resistance. Step 1: TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which has a high mutation rate leading to drug resistance. Step 2: With combination therapy, multiple drugs target different aspects of the bacteria's lifecycle, making it harder for resistance to develop. Step 3: This approach ensures that if one drug becomes ineffective due to resistance, others can still be effective. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the issue of resistance, which is a critical concern in TB treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing side effects, increasing antimycobacterial activity, and providing prophylaxis against other bacterial infections are not the primary reasons for using combination therapy in TB.
Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting folate synthesis in bacteria and * it is advisable to drink 8 ounces of water during this drug's use because it may cause crystalluria and subsequent kidney stone formation.
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Linezolid
- C. Sulfonamides
- D. Penicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Correct Answer (C - Sulfonamides): Sulfonamides inhibit folate synthesis in bacteria. Drinking water helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stone formation.
2. Incorrect Choices:
A. Vancomycin - Acts on cell wall synthesis, not folate synthesis.
B. Linezolid - Inhibits protein synthesis, not folate synthesis.
D. Penicillin - Inhibits cell wall synthesis, not folate synthesis.
A 20 year old male patient is diagnosed with Chaga’s disease, American trypanosomiasis. Which drug would be the most appropriate for this patient?
- A. Nifurtimox
- B. Metronidazole
- C. Suramin
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nifurtimox. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for Chagas disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is effective in treating both acute and chronic phases of the disease by reducing parasitemia. Metronidazole (B) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, not trypanosomiasis. Suramin (C) is used for African trypanosomiasis, not American trypanosomiasis. Chloroquine (D) is used for malaria, not trypanosomiasis. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for this patient.