Nokea
Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and:
- A. Potassium
- B. BUN
- C. Urea
- D. Glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics can lead to hyperglycemia by reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in increased blood glucose levels. Thiazides also elevate uric acid levels by reducing its excretion. Therefore, the correct answer is D (Glucose).
Incorrect choices:
A (Potassium) - Thiazides typically cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
B (BUN) and C (Urea) - Thiazides may cause a slight increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels due to reduced kidney function, but not as significantly as glucose levels.
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Which of the following drugs act by inhibiting folate synthesis in bacteria and * it is advisable to drink 8 ounces of water during this drug's use because it may cause crystalluria and subsequent kidney stone formation.
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Linezolid
- C. Sulfonamides
- D. Penicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Correct Answer (C - Sulfonamides): Sulfonamides inhibit folate synthesis in bacteria. Drinking water helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stone formation.
2. Incorrect Choices:
A. Vancomycin - Acts on cell wall synthesis, not folate synthesis.
B. Linezolid - Inhibits protein synthesis, not folate synthesis.
D. Penicillin - Inhibits cell wall synthesis, not folate synthesis.
Which of the following new drug is indicated in managing SIADH , non - * peptide and competitive antagonist of ADH 's water sparing effects in the collecting ducts of nephron?
- A. Mannitol
- B. Bumetanide
- C. Spironolactone
- D. Conivaptan
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conivaptan. Conivaptan is a non-peptide competitive antagonist of ADH, specifically targeting the V2 receptors in the collecting ducts of the nephron. This mechanism of action inhibits ADH's water-sparing effects, making it an effective treatment for SIADH.
A: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used for conditions like cerebral edema and acute kidney injury, not specifically for SIADH.
B: Bumetanide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for managing SIADH.
C: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, not for treating SIADH.
In summary, Conivaptan is the correct choice for managing SIADH due to its specific mechanism of action as a competitive antagonist of ADH in the collecting ducts, while the other options are
Which of the following is the most appropriate choice of treating * aspergillosis?
- A. Terbinan
- B. Amphotericin B
- C. Flucytosine
- D. Itraconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B, Amphotericin B, is the most appropriate choice for treating aspergillosis due to its broad-spectrum antifungal activity, especially against Aspergillus species. It is often used for severe or systemic infections when other options are ineffective. Terbinafine (A) is more commonly used for dermatophyte infections, while Flucytosine (C) is typically used for certain yeast infections. Itraconazole (D) may be effective against some Aspergillus strains but is generally considered less effective than Amphotericin B for severe cases.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which changes are associated with menopause?
- A. Uterine and ovarian atrophy, along with a thinning of the vaginal epithelium
- B. Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
- C. Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
- D. Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Answer A is correct because during menopause, there is uterine and ovarian atrophy due to decreased estrogen levels, leading to a thinning of the vaginal epithelium. This is a common physiological change associated with menopause.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Increased vaginal secretions and clitoral size do not typically occur with menopause.
C: Incorrect - Cervical hypertrophy and increased acidity of vaginal secretions are not common changes seen with menopause.
D: Incorrect - Vaginal mucosa fragility and uterine hypertrophy are not typical changes associated with menopause.
A 23 year old pregnant woman has UTI and presents to the ER with fever, frequency and urgency. Which of the following antibiotics can cause potential harm to her fetus?
- A. Nitrofurantoin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Gentamycin
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gentamycin. Gentamycin is known to have potential harmful effects on the fetus, such as causing hearing loss and kidney damage. This is due to its ability to cross the placental barrier. Amoxicillin (B) and Cephalexin (D) are both considered safe for use in pregnancy and are commonly prescribed for UTIs. Nitrofurantoin (A) is typically avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of hemolytic anemia in the newborn, but it is considered safe earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, Gentamycin is the correct choice as it poses a higher risk to the fetus compared to the other antibiotics.