Nokea
The unresponsive client with DM is admitted to the ED with a serum glucose level of 35 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Exenatide
- B. Pramlintide
- C. Miglitol
- D. Glucagon
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Exenatide (Byetta), a synthetic incretin mimetic, is used as an adjunct in type 2 diabetes to decrease blood glucose levels. B: Pramlintide (Symlin) lowers postprandial glucose levels by slowing gastric emptying. C: Miglitol (Glyset), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, lowers postprandial serum glucose levels. D: The nurse should plan to administer glucagon (GlucaGen). Glucagon, administered intramuscularly, intravenously, or subcutaneously, is used in unconscious clients with diabetes to reverse severe hypoglycemia from insulin overdose. Normal serum glucose is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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The HCP prescribes amoxicillin for the 8-month-old with acute otitis media that has not resolved. Which statement to the parents is correct regarding the primary purpose of amoxicillin?
- A. It will reduce the child's fever.
- B. It will reduce the child's severe ear pain.
- C. It will shrink swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube.
- D. It will treat the probable organism, Haemophilus influenzae.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: As the infection is treated, the fever will be reduced, but this is not the primary reason for treatment with amoxicillin. B: Treating the ear infection will reduce the pain, but that is not the primary purpose for treatment with amoxicillin. C: Reducing inflammation of the eustachian tube will occur, but this is not the primary purpose for treatment with amoxicillin. D: Acute otitis media is frequently caused by the Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. The primary purpose of amoxicillin (Amoxil) is to treat the infection caused by these two organisms.
The LPN is teaching a 25-year-old client about HPV. Which statements made by the client indicate understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply.
- A. I can only get HPV if my boyfriend has symptoms.
- B. HPV can cause cancers later in life, which is why it is important to prevent it now.
- C. I feel a bit better about having HPV now that I know that almost all sexually active people have it at some point.
- D. It's a bummer that I'm too old for the vaccine.
- E. If I take my birth control diligently, I can significantly reduce my risk for HPV.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HPV infection is common and most adults will have HPV at some point in their life. It can be transmitted via skin-to-skin contact as well through vaginal, anal, or oral sex. HPV infections can cause cancer, though most infections will disappear within two years. Transmission of HPV can occur even if someone is not symptomatic of infection. The HPV vaccine is recommended for children age 9 up to adults age 26. The only way to help prevent sexual transmission of HPV between partners is with condom use.
The HCP prescribed a dose of acetaminophen according to weight recommendations for the child weighing 48 lb. The package insert states that the recommended dose is 15 mg per kg. What dose should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: 327
Rationale: First change 48 lb into kilograms (48 / 2.2 = 21.8 kg). Next determine the dose (21.8 kg x 15 = 327 mg). The child should receive 327 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
The HCP prescribes risperidone to manage the hallucinations of the client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which client statements reflect a need for further education regarding the medication's side effects? Select all that apply.
- A. Diarrhea may be a problem for me.
- B. I'll most likely develop high blood pressure.
- C. Being too nervous is a side effect of my medicine.
- D. I will need to watch what I eat so I won't gain weight.
- E. Getting up too quickly when I'm sitting can make me dizzy.
- F. I will need to be careful driving because this can make me drowsy.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Constipation, not diarrhea, and hypotension, not hypertension, are side effects of risperidone, indicating a need for further education.
A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?
- A. left lateral
- B. lithotomy
- C. semi-Fowler's
- D. right lateral
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The left lateral position promotes blood flow to the placenta.