Nokea
This is an inflammation of the fallopian tubes and the pelvic organs secondary to infections with gonococcus or chlamydia
- A. Ovarian cyst
- B. Endometriosi
- C. PID
- D. Cervicitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the fallopian tubes and pelvic organs.
Step 2: PID is commonly caused by gonococcus or chlamydia infections.
Step 3: Ovarian cyst (A) is a fluid-filled sac on the ovary, not related to infections.
Step 4: Endometriosis (B) is the growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, not typically associated with infections.
Step 5: Cervicitis (D) is an inflammation of the cervix, not involving the fallopian tubes and pelvic organs.
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The uterus displays the following components:
- A. the cervix;
- B. the corpus;
- C. the head;
- D. the mid piece;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the cervix. The cervix is a component of the uterus that connects the uterus to the vagina. It plays a crucial role in pregnancy, as it dilates during childbirth to allow the baby to pass through. The other choices, B: the corpus, C: the head, and D: the mid piece, are incorrect as they do not refer to components of the uterus. The corpus typically refers to the main body of an organ, while the head and mid piece are terms commonly associated with structures in cells or organisms, not the uterus.
Which of the following is a fungal disease of the reproductive system?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Gonorrhea
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Genital Herpes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Candidiasis. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by the Candida fungus, commonly affecting the reproductive system. It can cause symptoms like itching, burning, and abnormal discharge.
A: Syphilis is a bacterial infection transmitted through sexual contact.
B: Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection affecting the reproductive system.
D: Genital Herpes is a viral infection that affects the genital area.
In summary, Candidiasis is the only fungal disease listed, making it the correct choice for a fungal infection of the reproductive system.
The ovule forms in:
- A. the medullar area of the ovary;
- B. the mature ovarian follicle;
- C. the Fallopian tube;
- D. the uterus;
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the mature ovarian follicle.
1. Ovule formation occurs within the ovary, specifically within a structure called the ovarian follicle.
2. The mature ovarian follicle contains the ovum (oocyte) which develops into the ovule.
3. The ovule is released during ovulation from the mature ovarian follicle.
In contrast, the other choices are incorrect:
A: The medullar area of the ovary does not play a direct role in ovule formation.
C: The Fallopian tube is where fertilization typically occurs, not ovule formation.
D: The uterus is not involved in ovule formation; it is the site of embryo implantation during pregnancy.
A 29 year old married computer programmer is c/o 'something strange' going on in his scrotum. Last month he felt a lump in his left testis, and it is still there. He has had some aching in the left testis but denies pain with urination or intercourse. Denies fever, malaise, night sweats. His PMH consisted of groin surgery as a baby and a tonsillectomy as an adolescent. He eats a healthy diet, exercises, denies tobacco or drugs. On exam the penis is circumcised with no lesions. No lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum is unremarkable on the right but indicates a large mass on the left. Placing a finger through the inguinal ring on the right, you have the patient bear down. Nothing is felt. You attempt to place your finger through the left inguinal ring but cannot get above the mass. On rectal exam, his prostate is unremarkable. What disorder of the tests is most likely the diagnosis?
- A. Hydrocele
- B. Scrotal hernia
- C. Scrotal edema
- D. Varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scrotal hernia. The patient's presentation with a lump in the left testis, aching, and a large mass on the left side of the scrotum, along with the inability to pass a finger above the mass through the left inguinal ring, suggests a scrotal hernia. This is further supported by the fact that bearing down does not reveal anything on the right side, ruling out hydrocele and varicocele. Scrotal edema would present with more generalized swelling in the scrotum rather than a localized mass. So, the key findings here point towards a scrotal hernia as the most likely diagnosis.
The fructose in semen is secreted by
- A. the epididymis.
- B. the seminiferous tubules.
- C. the seminal vesicles.
- D. the prostate glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the seminal vesicles. Seminal vesicles secrete fructose in semen to provide energy for sperm motility. This process occurs after sperm leave the epididymis and seminiferous tubules, ruling out choices A and B. The prostate glands contribute to the alkaline fluid in semen, not fructose, eliminating choice D. Therefore, choice C is correct due to its role in providing energy for sperm function.