Nokea
This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.
- A. Vasodilator
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Diuretic
- D. Beta-blocker
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators relax and widen blood vessels, leading to improved blood flow and decreased blood pressure. They work directly on the muscles in the walls of blood vessels. Anticoagulants (B) prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (C) increase urine production to reduce fluid buildup, and beta-blockers (D) reduce heart rate and blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline. Therefore, only vasodilators directly target blood vessel relaxation and widening to improve blood flow and reduce blood pressure.
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A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the beta blocker as ordered.
- C. Administer a diuretic to reduce blood pressure.
- D. Continue to monitor the client and reassess in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is considered low and may be a sign of hypotension, which can be a serious side effect of beta blockers. Holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the priority action to prevent further complications. Administering the beta blocker (choice B) can worsen the hypotension. Administering a diuretic (choice C) may further lower the blood pressure. Continuing to monitor and reassess (choice D) is not appropriate in this situation as immediate action is needed due to the low blood pressure reading.
When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Increased cardiac output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. This leads to improved cardiac output, as the heart can pump more efficiently. Decreased blood pressure (choice A) is a common side effect due to vasodilation. Increased heart rate (choice B) and decreased heart rate (choice D) are not expected outcomes of ACE inhibitor use. Therefore, the most appropriate and expected outcome of administering an ACE inhibitor in heart failure is an increase in cardiac output, making choice C the correct answer.
Which of the following is a chronic condition characterized by difficulty breathing due to airflow obstruction, commonly associated with long-term smoking?
- A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B. Asthma
- C. Pulmonary hypertension
- D. Bronchitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by airflow obstruction and difficulty breathing.
2. COPD is commonly linked to long-term smoking due to the damage caused to the lungs.
3. Asthma involves airway inflammation and reversible airflow obstruction, not necessarily linked to smoking.
4. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the lungs, not directly related to smoking.
5. Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchial tubes, not synonymous with airflow obstruction.
Summary: COPD is the correct answer as it aligns with the chronic condition characterized by airflow obstruction due to long-term smoking, distinguishing it from the other choices.
Which of the following is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by the irreversible obstruction of airflow?
- A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- B. Asthma
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic respiratory disease characterized by irreversible airflow obstruction due to conditions such as emphysema and chronic bronchitis. This is because COPD causes damage to the airways and alveoli, leading to decreased airflow. Asthma (B) is a chronic inflammatory disease with reversible airflow obstruction. Pulmonary edema (C) is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing but is not characterized by irreversible airflow obstruction. Bronchiectasis (D) involves the widening and scarring of the airways, leading to recurrent infections, but it is not specifically characterized by irreversible airflow obstruction.
The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer potassium supplements.
- B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
- D. Decrease the dose of furosemide.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss.
2. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications.
3. Priority is to address low potassium levels to prevent adverse effects like cardiac arrhythmias.
4. Administering potassium supplements helps to normalize potassium levels promptly.
Summary:
B: Holding furosemide without addressing low potassium can worsen the imbalance.
C: Continuing the current dose without addressing low potassium can lead to further depletion.
D: Decreasing furosemide dose before addressing low potassium can delay correcting the imbalance.